Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a total laryngectomy. Which of the following interventions is the priority for the nurse?

• A. Schedule a support session for the client.
• B. Explain the techniques of esophageal speech.
• C. Review the use of artificial larynx with the client.
• D. Determine the client's reading ability.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client scheduled for a total laryngectomy is to explain the techniques of esophageal speech. This is crucial for the client's post-surgery communication. Option A, scheduling a support session, is important but not the priority as ensuring the client can communicate effectively comes first. Option C, reviewing the use of artificial larynx, is relevant but not the priority compared to teaching esophageal speech. Option D, determining the client's reading ability, is not as critical as ensuring the client learns a primary method of communication following the laryngectomy.

2. During an admission history, a client tells a nurse that she is under a lot of stress. Which of the following physiological responses should the nurse expect to increase as a result of stress?

• A. Blood glucose - a common stress response.
• B. Intestinal peristalsis - should decrease due to stress.
• C. Peripheral blood vessels diameter - can vary in response to stress.
• D. Urine output - may vary but not a typical stress response.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Stress typically increases blood glucose levels due to the release of stress hormones like cortisol and adrenaline. Elevated blood glucose helps provide energy for the body to cope with the stressful situation. Choice B is incorrect because intestinal peristalsis, the movement of the intestines, is more likely to decrease under stress due to the 'fight or flight' response. Choice C is incorrect as peripheral blood vessels' diameter may vary in response to stress, with both constriction and dilation possible. Choice D is incorrect as urine output may increase or decrease depending on individual differences and the specific stress response, but it is not a typical or direct physiological response to stress.

3. A school-aged child has had a long leg (hip to ankle) synthetic cast applied 4 hours ago. Which statement from the mother indicates that teaching has been inadequate?

• A. I will keep the cast covered the next day to prevent skin burning.
• B. I can apply an ice pack over the area to relieve itching inside the cast.
• C. The cast should be propped on at least 2 pillows when my child is lying down.
• D. I think I remember that standing cannot be done until after 72 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because there is no need to wait 72 hours before allowing the child to stand. The synthetic cast does not affect weight-bearing capacity, and standing can be done as tolerated. Choice A is incorrect because keeping the cast covered can lead to damage or accidents. Choice B is acceptable as applying an ice pack can help relieve itching. Choice C is also correct as elevating the cast on pillows can help reduce swelling and promote comfort during rest.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a wound infection. Which type of dressing is most appropriate to use to promote healing by secondary intention?

• A. Dry gauze dressing
• B. Wet-to-dry dressing
• C. Transparent film dressing
• D. Hydrocolloid dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hydrocolloid dressings are ideal for promoting healing by secondary intention in wound infections. These dressings create a moist environment that supports autolytic debridement and facilitates the healing process. Dry gauze dressings (Option A) may lead to adherence, causing trauma upon removal and disrupting the wound bed. Wet-to-dry dressings (Option B) are primarily used for mechanical debridement and can be painful during dressing changes. Transparent film dressings (Option C) are more suitable for superficial wounds with minimal exudate and are not typically used for wound infections requiring healing by secondary intention.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is being assessed. Which symptom would be most concerning?

• A. Headache
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Dizziness
• D. Chest pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest pain in a client with hypertension is the most concerning symptom as it may indicate a myocardial infarction or other serious cardiac event related to hypertension. Immediate intervention is required to address potential life-threatening conditions. Headache, blurred vision, and dizziness are common symptoms associated with hypertension but are not typically indicative of an acute cardiac event requiring urgent attention.

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