HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client is scheduled for a total laryngectomy. Which of the following interventions is the priority for the nurse?
- A. Schedule a support session for the client.
- B. Explain the techniques of esophageal speech.
- C. Review the use of artificial larynx with the client.
- D. Determine the client's reading ability.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority intervention for a client scheduled for a total laryngectomy is to explain the techniques of esophageal speech. This is crucial for the client's post-surgery communication. Option A, scheduling a support session, is important but not the priority as ensuring the client can communicate effectively comes first. Option C, reviewing the use of artificial larynx, is relevant but not the priority compared to teaching esophageal speech. Option D, determining the client's reading ability, is not as critical as ensuring the client learns a primary method of communication following the laryngectomy.
2. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?
- A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
- B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- D. Assess the client's urine output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most critical action for the nurse to take when a client with diabetes mellitus presents with symptoms of hyperglycemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. This action helps in assessing the client's current glycemic status and guides further interventions. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice B) may be beneficial in managing dehydration caused by polyuria, but it does not address the underlying cause of hyperglycemia. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice C) may be necessary based on the blood glucose monitoring results, but monitoring should precede any medication administration. Assessing the client's urine output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the primary concern of evaluating and managing hyperglycemia in a client with diabetes.
3. A client with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is seeking advice on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. What action should the nurse recommend?
- A. Plan meals with low carbohydrates and high protein
- B. Engage in strenuous activity for an hour daily
- C. Keep a record of daily food and beverage intake
- D. Participate in a group exercise class three times a week
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Keeping a food diary is an essential practice when starting a weight loss plan as it helps in tracking calorie intake, identifying eating patterns, and making informed decisions about dietary changes. Planning meals with low carbohydrates and high protein (Choice A) can be beneficial for some individuals, but keeping a food diary is more foundational. Engaging in strenuous daily activity (Choice B) may not be sustainable for everyone and could lead to burnout or injuries. Participating in a group exercise class (Choice D) is beneficial for fitness but may not address dietary habits, which are crucial for weight loss.
4. The healthcare professional prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The healthcare professional should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?
- A. 80
- B. 8
- C. 21
- D. 25
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the IV infusion, first determine the total drops to be infused over 8 hours. 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours means 125 ml per hour (1000 ml / 8 hours = 125 ml/hr). Since the infusion set delivers 10 drops per ml, 125 ml/hr x 10 drops/ml = 1250 drops/hr. To find drops per minute, divide the drops per hour by 60 (minutes in an hour): 1250 drops/hr / 60 minutes = 20.83 drops/minute, which rounds up to 21 drops per minute (Option C). This rate ensures the correct infusion rate over 8 hours. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect calculations and do not provide the appropriate infusion rate needed to administer the IV over the specified time period.
5. While caring for a client receiving parenteral fluid therapy via a peripheral IV catheter, after which of the following observations should the nurse remove the IV catheter?
- A. Swelling and coolness are observed at the IV site.
- B. The client reports mild discomfort at the insertion site.
- C. The infusion rate is slower than expected.
- D. The IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Swelling and coolness at the IV site can indicate complications such as infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage or fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues. Prompt removal of the IV catheter is essential to prevent further complications. The client reporting mild discomfort at the insertion site is common during IV therapy and does not necessarily warrant catheter removal unless there are signs of infiltration. A slower than expected infusion rate may not always necessitate IV catheter removal; the nurse should troubleshoot potential causes such as kinks in the tubing or pump malfunctions first. Just because the IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment does not automatically mean it should be removed; proper assessment and monitoring for complications are still essential.
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