Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Mild nausea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Increased fatigue
• D. Fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to ensure proper administration?

• A. Check the placement of the tube by auscultation.
• B. Flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration.
• C. Administer the medication with food to prevent nausea.
• D. Dilute the medication with normal saline before administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure proper administration through a nasogastric tube, the LPN/LVN should flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration. This action helps ensure the tube is patent, prevents clogging, and helps deliver the medication effectively. Checking the placement of the tube by auscultation (Choice A) is essential but does not directly relate to ensuring proper administration. Administering the medication with food (Choice C) may not always be appropriate for all medications and may not necessarily prevent nausea. Diluting the medication with normal saline (Choice D) is not a standard practice for all medications administered via an NG tube and may alter the medication's effectiveness.

3. A client who is 5'5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is most important for the LPN to include during the preoperative assessment?

• A. What is your daily calorie consumption?
• B. What vitamin and mineral supplements do you take?
• C. Do you feel that you are overweight?
• D. Will a clear liquid diet be okay after surgery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the preoperative assessment, it is crucial for the LPN to inquire about the client's intake of vitamin and mineral supplements. This is important because certain supplements can have effects on coagulation, wound healing, and overall surgical outcomes. Asking about daily calorie consumption (Choice A) is not as pertinent as inquiring about vitamin and mineral supplements in this context. Questioning the client about feeling overweight (Choice C) may not directly impact the surgical outcome compared to the effects of supplements. Inquiring about the post-surgery diet (Choice D) is relevant but not as critical as understanding the client's supplement intake.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Pain level of 8/10
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F
• D. Saturated abdominal dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.

5. A client with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

• A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
• B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
• C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper state of unconsciousness than what is described in the scenario. Choice C is inaccurate as the client is not merely sleeping but non-responsive. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than what is presented in the scenario.

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