the nurse is providing care for a client who is receiving chemotherapy which finding should the lpnlvn report to the healthcare provider immediately
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.

2. When a nurse assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client, the next action by the nurse should be to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse experiences reluctance to interact with a manipulative client, it is essential to address these feelings constructively. Discussing the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor allows the nurse to gain perspective, reflect on the situation, and develop appropriate strategies for patient care. This action promotes self-awareness, professional growth, and ensures that patient care is not compromised. Option B is incorrect because avoiding the client may not address the underlying issues and can impact the therapeutic relationship. Option C is inappropriate as confronting the client may escalate the situation and hinder effective communication. Option D is not the immediate action needed in this scenario, as it focuses on behavior modification rather than addressing the nurse's feelings of reluctance.

3. A client requires a 24-hour urine collection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because for a 24-hour urine collection, the first void is discarded, and all subsequent urine should be saved. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements do not contribute to a urine collection. Choice B indicates a single specimen rather than continuous collection over 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as it incorrectly suggests rushing the test by drinking excessively.

4. A nurse is collecting data from a client who is receiving IV therapy and reports pain in the arm, chills, and 'not feeling well.' The nurse notes warmth, edema, induration, and red streaking on the client’s arm close to the IV insertion site. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Discontinuing the infusion is the first step in addressing potential complications such as phlebitis or infection. It is crucial to prevent further infusion-related damage by stopping the source of the issue. Obtaining a specimen for culture (Choice A) can be considered later to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) or administering analgesics (Choice C) may provide comfort but do not address the underlying issue of infection or phlebitis, which requires immediate intervention by discontinuing the infusion.

5. When planning care for a newly admitted elderly client who is severely dehydrated, which task is appropriate to assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Assigning the UAP to report hourly outputs of less than 30 ml/hr is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice and does not involve making clinical assessments or decisions. Choices A, C, and D involve tasks that require a higher level of clinical judgment and training. Choice A requires assessing mucous membranes, which is beyond the UAP's scope. Choice C involves assessing movement ability, which requires more specialized training. Choice D involves assessing skin turgor, which also requires a higher level of clinical judgment.

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