Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Mild nausea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Increased fatigue
• D. Fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.

2. Following major abdominal surgery, a client postoperative refuses to use the incentive spirometer. What is the nurse's priority?

• A. Determine the reason why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer.
• B. Insist that the client use the incentive spirometer.
• C. Administer pain medication to help the client use the spirometer.
• D. Document the refusal in the client’s medical record.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority in this situation is to determine the reason why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer. By understanding the client's concerns or barriers, the nurse can address them effectively and encourage the client to use the spirometer for optimal postoperative recovery. Insisting that the client use the spirometer without understanding the underlying reason may lead to further resistance. Administering pain medication as a solution does not address the root cause of refusal and may not be necessary if pain is not the primary reason for refusal. Documenting the refusal is important but should come after understanding the client's perspective to provide appropriate care and follow-up.

3. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. INR of 1.5
• B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• D. aPTT of 70 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

4. A newly licensed nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client. The nurse notes that the provider has prescribed a medication that is unfamiliar. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Consult the medication reference book available on the unit.
• B. Administer the medication as ordered.
• C. Ask a colleague for information about the medication.
• D. Contact the provider to clarify the medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When encountering an unfamiliar medication, the safest action for a nurse is to consult the medication reference book available on the unit. This resource provides accurate and detailed information about medications, including indications, dosages, side effects, and nursing considerations. Administering a medication without understanding it (choice B) can lead to medication errors and harm to the client. Asking a colleague for information (choice C) may not always provide accurate or up-to-date information. Contacting the provider (choice D) should be reserved for situations where immediate clarification is needed, but consulting the reference book is the initial step to gain knowledge and ensure safe medication administration.

5. When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what assessment finding must the healthcare provider confirm before beginning chest compressions?

• A. Absence of a pulse
• B. Presence of a pulse
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of a pulse. Prior to initiating chest compressions during CPR, it is essential to confirm the absence of a pulse. Chest compressions are indicated when there is no detectable pulse as it signifies cardiac arrest. Checking for a pulse is a critical step to ensure that CPR is performed on individuals who truly require it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because focusing on the presence of a pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure before starting chest compressions can delay life-saving interventions in a person experiencing cardiac arrest.

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