Nursing Elites

1. What action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a postoperative client with a history of poor nutritional intake who needs care for wound healing?

• A. Provide a protein intake of 1.5 g/kg of body weight per day.
• B. Increase carbohydrate intake to 50% of daily calories.
• C. Administer high-dose vitamin supplements.
• D. Ensure a daily intake of 1000 calories.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To promote wound healing in a postoperative client with poor nutritional intake, the nurse should include a protein intake of 1.5 g/kg of body weight per day in the plan of care. Proteins are essential for tissue repair and wound healing. Increasing carbohydrate intake or administering high-dose vitamin supplements may not directly promote wound healing. Ensuring a daily intake of 1000 calories may not provide adequate nutrients for optimal wound healing.

2. A client appears upset about the IV catheter insertion but does not communicate it to the nurse after being informed about the prescribed IV fluids. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

• A. Ignore the client’s discomfort
• B. Reassure the client without addressing concerns
• C. Is there something about this procedure that concerns you?
• D. Proceed with the procedure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate nursing response in this situation is to ask the client if there are any concerns about the procedure. By doing so, the nurse acknowledges the client's distress and opens up a dialogue to address any anxieties or misconceptions. Option A is incorrect as ignoring the client’s discomfort can lead to increased anxiety and potential harm. Option B is not ideal as reassuring the client without addressing specific concerns may not alleviate the client's distress. Option D is incorrect because proceeding with the procedure without addressing the client's unspoken concerns can further escalate the client's distress.

3. While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
• B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
• C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
• D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client's nose and mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.

4. The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the risk of hyperglycemia. TPN solutions are high in glucose, and clients may be at risk of developing hyperglycemia if the infusion rate is too high or if there are underlying issues such as insulin resistance. Monitoring serum potassium (choice A) is important but not the most crucial value to monitor in clients receiving TPN. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum calcium (choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN administration and are less likely to be affected compared to blood glucose levels.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.

Similar Questions