Nursing Elites

1. A dying client is coping with feelings regarding impending death. The nurse bases care on the theory of death and dying by Kübler-Ross. During which stage of grieving should the LPN/LVN primarily use nonverbal interventions?

• A. Anger
• B. Denial
• C. Bargaining
• D. Acceptance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nonverbal interventions are primarily used during the acceptance stage according to Kübler-Ross's theory of death and dying. During the acceptance stage, the individual is more likely to be reflective and less communicative, making nonverbal interventions more effective. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because anger, denial, and bargaining are stages that precede the acceptance stage in Kübler-Ross's model, where verbal communication and processing emotions play a more significant role.

2. A healthcare professional is planning care to improve self-feeding for a client with vision loss. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional include in the plan of care?

• A. Instruct the client on the sequence of foods to eat first
• B. Offer small-handle utensils for the client to use
• C. Thicken liquids served to the client
• D. Use a clock pattern to indicate food placement on the client's plate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a client has vision loss, using a clock pattern to describe food placement on the plate can facilitate independent eating. This method enables the client to locate different food items based on their positions, enhancing self-feeding abilities. Instructing the client on the sequence of foods to eat first (Choice A) may not address the visual impairment directly. Providing small-handle utensils (Choice B) can be helpful for clients with limited dexterity but may not specifically assist a client with vision loss. Thickening liquids (Choice C) is more relevant for clients with dysphagia, not vision loss.

3. When performing cardiac chest compressions, what is a critical concept that the nurse must understand?

• A. Push hard and deep on the chest
• B. Compress the chest at a rapid rate
• C. Perform compressions with minimal interruptions
• D. Use a two-handed technique for compressions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Push hard and deep on the chest.' Effective chest compressions during CPR should be forceful and deep enough to adequately circulate blood to vital organs. This helps maintain perfusion and increases the likelihood of a successful outcome. Compressing the chest at a rapid rate (choice B) is important but not as critical as ensuring the compressions are hard and deep. Performing compressions with minimal interruptions (choice C) is also crucial to maintain blood flow. Using a two-handed technique for compressions (choice D) may be helpful but is not as critical as the depth and force of the compressions.

4. A nurse manager is overseeing the care on a unit. Which of the following should the nurse manager identify as a violation of HIPAA guidelines?

• A. A nurse who is caring for a client reviews the client's medical chart with the nursing student who is working with the nurse.
• B. A nurse asks a nurse from another unit to assist with her documentation.
• C. A nurse who is caring for a client returns a call to the client's durable power of attorney for health care designee to discuss the client's care.
• D. A nurse discusses a client's status with the physical therapist who is caring for the client at the bedside.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. HIPAA guidelines specify that only healthcare professionals directly involved in a patient's care should access their medical information. Asking a nurse from another unit to assist with documentation involves sharing patient information with someone not directly caring for the patient, which violates HIPAA guidelines. Choices A, C, and D involve individuals directly involved in the client's care, making them appropriate actions in line with HIPAA regulations. Choice A involves educating a nursing student under the supervision of the nurse, which is permissible. Choice C involves communicating with the client's designated healthcare decision-maker, which is also allowed under HIPAA. Choice D involves discussing the client's status with another healthcare professional directly involved in the client's care, which is within HIPAA guidelines.

5. A healthcare provider is providing range of motion to the shoulder and must perform external rotation. Which action will the provider take?

• A. Moves the patient's arm in a full circle.
• B. Moves the patient's arm across the body as far as possible.
• C. Moves the patient's arm behind the body, keeping the elbow straight.
• D. Moves the patient's arm until the thumb is upward and lateral to the head with the elbow flexed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for external rotation of the shoulder involves moving the patient's arm until the thumb is upward and lateral to the head with the elbow flexed. This position maximizes external rotation at the shoulder joint. Choices A, moving the arm in a full circle, B, moving the arm across the body, and C, moving the arm behind the body with the elbow straight, do not describe external rotation and are incorrect. Therefore, Choice D is the correct action for performing external rotation.

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