HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A dying client is coping with feelings regarding impending death. The nurse bases care on the theory of death and dying by Kübler-Ross. During which stage of grieving should the LPN/LVN primarily use nonverbal interventions?
- A. Anger
- B. Denial
- C. Bargaining
- D. Acceptance
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nonverbal interventions are primarily used during the acceptance stage according to Kübler-Ross's theory of death and dying. During the acceptance stage, the individual is more likely to be reflective and less communicative, making nonverbal interventions more effective. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because anger, denial, and bargaining are stages that precede the acceptance stage in Kübler-Ross's model, where verbal communication and processing emotions play a more significant role.
2. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?
- A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
- B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
- C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
- D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is unstable and has vital signs measured every 15 minutes by an electronic blood pressure machine. The nurse notices the machine begins to measure the blood pressure at varied intervals and the readings are inconsistent. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Discontinue the machine and measure the blood pressure manually every 15 minutes.
- B. Adjust the machine settings.
- C. Clean the machine to ensure accuracy.
- D. Increase the frequency of the readings.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should adjust the machine settings. If the electronic blood pressure machine is providing varied intervals and inconsistent readings, it indicates a potential malfunction. Changing the settings may help correct the issue and ensure accurate measurements. Discontinuing the machine and measuring manually every 15 minutes (Choice A) may be time-consuming and impractical. Cleaning the machine (Choice C) is important for routine maintenance but may not address the current issue of varied intervals and inconsistent readings. Increasing the frequency of the readings (Choice D) does not address the problem of inaccurate measurements caused by the malfunctioning machine.
4. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?
- A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
- B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
- C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
- D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.
5. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Pain level of 8/10
- C. Temperature of 100.4°F
- D. Saturated abdominal dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention. This finding suggests a potential surgical site issue that needs urgent attention to prevent further complications. Absent bowel sounds, pain level, and a slightly elevated temperature are common post-operative findings that may not necessarily require immediate intervention compared to a saturated abdominal dressing. Absent bowel sounds can be common after surgery due to anesthesia but may resolve with time. Pain and slightly elevated temperature are expected post-operative findings that can be managed with appropriate pain relief and monitoring. However, a saturated abdominal dressing indicates a potential ongoing issue at the surgical site that needs prompt assessment and intervention to prevent complications.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access