HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A nurse in a surgical suite notes documentation on a client's medical record stating that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client's procedure, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?
- A. Ensure sterilization of non-disposable items with ethylene oxide
- B. Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette and secure them with non-latex tape
- C. Cleanse latex ports on IV tubing with chlorhexidine before administering medication
- D. Wear hypoallergenic latex gloves that are powder-free
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should take precautions to prevent latex exposure to the client due to his latex allergy. Wrapping monitoring cords with stockinette and securing them with non-latex tape helps to minimize the risk of latex contact with the client. Choice A is incorrect as sterilizing non-disposable items with ethylene oxide does not specifically address the avoidance of latex exposure. Choice C involves using latex ports on IV tubing, which can pose a risk of allergic reaction in a client with a latex allergy. Choice D suggests wearing latex gloves, even if hypoallergenic, which can still trigger a reaction in individuals with latex allergy. Therefore, the best option is to choose non-latex materials like stockinette and non-latex tape to prevent direct contact with latex.
2. The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?
- A. Primary prevention.
- B. Tertiary prevention.
- C. Secondary prevention.
- D. Primary nursing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.
3. A healthcare professional is collecting data to evaluate a middle adult’s psychosocial development. The healthcare professional should expect middle adults to demonstrate which of the following developmental tasks? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Develop an acceptance of diminished strength and increased dependence on others.
- B. Spend time focusing on improving job performance.
- C. Welcome opportunities to be creative and productive.
- D. Commit to finding friendship and companionship.
Correct answer: B, C, D
Rationale: Middle adulthood is a stage where individuals typically focus on various developmental tasks. Option A is incorrect as middle adults do not necessarily develop an acceptance of diminished strength and increased dependence on others; they often strive to maintain independence. Option B is correct as middle adults are usually focused on improving job performance and advancing their careers. Option C is correct as middle adults tend to welcome opportunities to be creative and productive, engaging in new hobbies or projects. Option D is correct as middle adults often commit to finding friendship and companionship as they value social connections and support networks. Therefore, options B, C, and D are the expected developmental tasks for middle adults, making them the correct choices.
4. Tim, a 27-year-old man, has unusually narrow shoulders, low muscle mass, and has no facial and body hair. His doctor recently prescribed testosterone replacement therapy to him. Tim is most likely suffering from:
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
- B. Cystic fibrosis.
- C. Klinefelter syndrome.
- D. Huntington’s disease (HD).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tim's physical characteristics, such as narrow shoulders, low muscle mass, and lack of facial and body hair, are typical signs of Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic condition where males have an extra X chromosome (XXY). This leads to underdeveloped testes and reduced testosterone production, resulting in features like gynecomastia, sparse facial and body hair, and reduced muscle mass. Testosterone replacement therapy is commonly used to address the hormonal imbalance in individuals with Klinefelter syndrome. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder unrelated to the symptoms described in Tim's case. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic respiratory condition that does not present with the physical characteristics mentioned. Huntington’s disease (HD) is a neurodegenerative disorder primarily affecting motor function and cognition, not physical appearance and muscle mass.
5. A child with a diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being discharged. What dietary instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid spicy foods
- B. Avoid gluten
- C. Avoid high-fat foods
- D. Avoid dairy products
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct dietary instruction for a child with GERD is to avoid high-fat foods. High-fat foods can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to increased reflux. While avoiding gluten may be necessary for individuals with gluten sensitivity or celiac disease, it is not a standard recommendation for GERD. Avoiding spicy foods and dairy products may help some individuals with GERD, but the most crucial dietary advice is to avoid high-fat foods.