Nursing Elites

1. During an admission assessment for an older adult client, what is the priority action for the nurse after gathering data and reviewing systems?

• A. Orient the client to their room.
• B. Conduct a client care conference.
• C. Review medical prescriptions.
• D. Develop a plan of care.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse after completing the assessment and review of systems for an older adult client is to orient them to their room. This is crucial for ensuring the client's comfort and safety in the new environment. While reviewing medical prescriptions and developing a plan of care are important aspects of the admission process, they can be done after the client has been oriented to their room.

2. A client asks a nurse about the purpose of advance directives.

• A. Indicate a form of treatment a client is willing to accept.
• B. Specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment.
• C. Determine the client's daily medication schedule.
• D. Outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directives serve to indicate the forms of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or decline in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. This legal document allows individuals to make decisions about their future healthcare. Choice B is incorrect as advance directives do not specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment. Choice C is incorrect as advance directives do not determine the client's daily medication schedule; this is typically addressed in a medication administration record. Choice D is incorrect as advance directives do not outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage, but rather focus on healthcare treatment preferences.

3. The caregiver is teaching parents about accidental poisoning in children. Which point should be emphasized?

• A. Call the Poison Control Center as soon as the situation is identified
• B. Empty the child's mouth in any case of possible poisoning
• C. Have the child move minimally if a toxic substance was inhaled
• D. Do not induce vomiting if the poison is a hydrocarbon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to emphasize emptying the child's mouth in any case of possible poisoning. This action is crucial to prevent further ingestion of the poisonous substance. Choice A is incorrect because calling the Poison Control Center should be one of the first steps, not waiting until the situation is identified. Choice C is incorrect as moving the child may spread or exacerbate the effects of the toxic substance. Choice D is incorrect because inducing vomiting can be harmful if the poison is a hydrocarbon, as it may lead to aspiration.

4. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?

• A. Reflex incontinence
• B. Allergic to shellfish
• C. Claustrophobia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.

5. During auscultation of the anterior chest wall of a client newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit, what type of breath sounds should a nurse expect to hear?

• A. Normal breath sounds
• B. Adventitious breath sounds
• C. Absent breath sounds
• D. Diminished breath sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During auscultation of the chest, normal breath sounds are the expected findings in a client who is newly admitted without respiratory complaints. Normal breath sounds indicate proper airflow through the airways without any abnormalities. Adventitious breath sounds (Choice B) refer to abnormal lung sounds such as crackles or wheezes, which are indicative of underlying respiratory issues. Absent breath sounds (Choice C) suggest a lack of airflow to a particular lung area, which could be due to conditions like pneumothorax. Diminished breath sounds (Choice D) indicate reduced airflow or consolidation in a specific lung region, often seen in conditions like pleural effusion or pneumonia. Therefore, in a newly admitted client without respiratory complaints, the nurse should expect to hear normal breath sounds during auscultation.

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