a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis dvt is admitted with swelling and pain in the left leg what is the most appropriate action for the lpn
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamental Practice Exam

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with swelling and pain in the left leg. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Measuring the circumference of the left leg is the most appropriate action for an LPN/LVN when assessing a client with a history of DVT and presenting with swelling and pain in the left leg. This measurement helps to assess the extent of swelling objectively and monitor changes in the client's condition. Applying warm compresses (Choice A) may worsen the condition by potentially promoting clot development. Elevating the left leg above the level of the heart (Choice B) is generally recommended for DVT to improve venous return, but measuring the circumference is more appropriate in this scenario. Administering pain medication (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue and should not be the initial action taken.

2. A client is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. After the nurse explains the procedure, which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the client's statement indicates a misunderstanding about the need to lie still during the bronchoscopy procedure. The client actually needs to remain still for the procedure to ensure its accuracy and safety. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate an understanding of the procedure by acknowledging the local anesthetic for discomfort, the possibility of receiving medicine for relaxation, and the requirement to fast before the procedure, respectively.

3. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

4. A middle-aged adult in a clinical setting mentions being at average risk for colon cancer and asks about routine screening. What should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Colorectal cancer screening for individuals at average risk typically begins at age 50. One of the recommended options for routine screening is a fecal occult blood test done annually. Choice A is incorrect as blood samples are not used for routine colorectal cancer screening. Choice B is incorrect because colonoscopies usually start at age 50, not 60. Choice D is incorrect as sigmoidoscopies are recommended every 5 years, not every 10 years, for individuals at average risk for colon cancer.

5. A nurse receives a report about a client who has 0.9% sodium chloride infusing IV at 125 mL/hr. When the nurse performs the initial assessment, they note that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hrs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. By doing this, the nurse can assess if there is any blockage or kink in the tubing that is impeding the flow of the IV solution. This step is crucial as it helps in identifying the reason for the inadequate infusion rate. Increasing the infusion rate (Choice B) without first checking for obstructions can lead to potential complications if there is a blockage. Administering a bolus of fluid (Choice C) may not be appropriate without addressing the cause of the decreased infusion rate. Similarly, replacing the IV catheter (Choice D) is not the initial priority unless obstruction is ruled out and other troubleshooting measures have been taken.

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