Nursing Elites

1. A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. What transmission precautions are necessary?

• A. Droplet
• B. Contact
• C. Airborne
• D. Standard

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is primarily spread through droplet transmission, which occurs when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks, releasing respiratory droplets containing the bacteria. Therefore, the correct precaution for caring for a client with pharyngeal diphtheria is droplet precautions. Droplet precautions help prevent the transmission of respiratory pathogens over short distances via respiratory droplets. Contact precautions are used for diseases spread through direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Airborne precautions are used for diseases that spread through small droplets suspended in the air. Standard precautions are basic infection prevention practices applying to all patient care.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
• C. Serum potassium level
• D. Serum creatinine level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

3. A 16-year-old enters the emergency department. The triage nurse identifies that this teenager is legally married and signs the consent form for treatment. What would be the appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Ask the teenager to wait until a parent or legal guardian can be contacted
• B. Withhold treatment until telephone consent can be obtained from the partner
• C. Refer the teenager to a community pediatric hospital emergency department
• D. Proceed with the triage process in the same manner as any adult client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to proceed with the triage process in the same manner as any adult client. In this scenario, since the teenager is legally married, they have the legal authority to consent to their own treatment. Choice A is incorrect because the teenager, being legally married, can provide their own consent. Choice B is incorrect as it unnecessarily delays treatment by waiting for telephone consent from the partner, which is not required in this case. Choice C is incorrect as the teenager can receive appropriate care in the current emergency department setting without the need for referral.

4. A 3-year-old child is brought to the clinic by his grandmother to be seen for 'scratching his bottom and wetting the bed at night.' Based on these complaints, the nurse would initially assess for which problem?

• A. Allergies
• B. Scabies
• C. Regression
• D. Pinworms

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Pinworms. Pinworms are a common cause of itching around the anal area, especially at night, in young children. Scratching the bottom and bedwetting can be indicative of a pinworm infection. Allergies (Choice A) are less likely given the symptoms described. Scabies (Choice B) may cause itching but is less common in causing bedwetting. Regression (Choice C) is not a common cause of these specific symptoms in a 3-year-old child.

5. A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is preparing to transfer a client who is unable to walk from bed to a wheelchair. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

• A. Place the wheelchair at a 45-degree angle to the bed
• B. Position the wheelchair parallel to the bed
• C. Place the wheelchair in front of the bed
• D. Have the client stand and pivot into the wheelchair

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the wheelchair at a 45-degree angle to the bed is the correct technique for transferring a client who is unable to walk from bed to a wheelchair. This positioning facilitates a safer and easier transfer by providing more space for maneuvering and reducing the distance the client needs to be moved. Positioning the wheelchair parallel to the bed (Choice B) may make the transfer more challenging due to limited space and a longer distance to move the client. Placing the wheelchair in front of the bed (Choice C) may not provide an optimal angle for the transfer. Having the client stand and pivot into the wheelchair (Choice D) is not appropriate for a client who is unable to walk and could increase the risk of falls or injuries during the transfer.

Similar Questions