Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is confused and continually grabs at the nurse. Which of the following is a nursing action?

• A. Firmly tell the client not to grab
• B. Redirect the client’s attention
• C. Use physical restraints
• D. Avoid contact with the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Redirecting the client's attention is the appropriate nursing action in this scenario. When dealing with a confused client exhibiting grabbing behavior, redirection can help shift their focus to a more appropriate activity or object. Firmly telling the client not to grab may escalate the situation and create a confrontational environment, which is not recommended when caring for confused clients. The use of physical restraints should be a last resort and only implemented after all other strategies have been exhausted, as they can contribute to increased agitation and distress in older adults. Avoiding contact with the client is not a proactive approach to managing the behavior and may lead to feelings of neglect or abandonment in the client.

2. Which statement made by a client indicates to the nurse that they may have a thought disorder?

• A. 'I'm so angry about this. Wait until my partner hears about this.'
• B. 'I'm a little confused. What time is it?'
• C. 'I can't find my missing shoes. Have you seen them?'
• D. 'I'm fine. It's my daughter who has the problem.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The statement 'I can't find my missing shoes. Have you seen them?' displays disorganized thinking or speech, which is characteristic of a thought disorder. The mention of 'missing shoes' in a context that does not make logical sense suggests a disturbance in thought processes. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate disorganized thinking typical of thought disorders. Option A reflects emotional expression, option B indicates mild confusion, and option D shows a redirection of focus to someone else's problem.

3. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

• A. Screening for early symptoms
• B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
• C. Elimination of the exposure
• D. Increasing awareness of symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

4. A client who had a stroke requires assistance with morning ADLs. Which of the following interprofessional team members should the nurse consult?

• A. Registered dietitian.
• B. Occupational therapist.
• C. Speech-language pathologist.
• D. Physical therapist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Occupational therapist. An occupational therapist specializes in assisting clients with daily living activities, making them crucial for a stroke patient requiring help with morning activities of daily living (ADLs). While a registered dietitian (A) may provide nutritional guidance, a speech-language pathologist (C) focuses on communication and swallowing disorders, and a physical therapist (D) primarily deals with mobility and physical rehabilitation. However, none of these professionals directly address the specific needs related to ADLs following a stroke as effectively as an occupational therapist.

5. During an IV catheter insertion demonstration, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding of the procedure?

• A. “I will thread the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
• B. “I will insert the needle into the client’s skin at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
• C. “I will apply pressure approximately 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle.”
• D. “I will select a vein in the antecubital fossa for IV insertion based on its size and easily accessible location.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for IV catheter insertion involves inserting the needle at a 10 to 30-degree angle with the bevel up. This angle facilitates proper vein puncture, reduces the risk of complications, and minimizes trauma to the vein. Choice A is incorrect because threading the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up is the correct technique, not threading it all the way into the vein. Choice C is incorrect because applying pressure 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle is not a standard step in IV catheter insertion. Choice D is incorrect because selecting the antecubital fossa vein solely based on its size and accessibility may not be the most appropriate criterion; vein selection should also consider factors like vein condition and patient comfort.

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