Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is confused and continually grabs at the nurse. Which of the following is a nursing action?

• A. Firmly tell the client not to grab
• B. Redirect the client’s attention
• C. Use physical restraints
• D. Avoid contact with the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Redirecting the client's attention is the appropriate nursing action in this scenario. When dealing with a confused client exhibiting grabbing behavior, redirection can help shift their focus to a more appropriate activity or object. Firmly telling the client not to grab may escalate the situation and create a confrontational environment, which is not recommended when caring for confused clients. The use of physical restraints should be a last resort and only implemented after all other strategies have been exhausted, as they can contribute to increased agitation and distress in older adults. Avoiding contact with the client is not a proactive approach to managing the behavior and may lead to feelings of neglect or abandonment in the client.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Hourly urine output
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
• D. Temperature every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

4. A client has an order for 1000 ml of D5W over an 8-hour period. The nurse discovers that 800 ml has been infused after 4 hours. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Ask the client if there are any breathing problems
• B. Have the client void as much as possible
• C. Check the vital signs
• D. Auscultate the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Auscultate the lungs. When a significant amount of fluid has been infused, especially in a short period, it is crucial to assess for signs of fluid overload or pulmonary complications, such as crackles or decreased breath sounds. This can be achieved by auscultating the lungs. Choice A, asking the client about breathing problems, may provide valuable information, but direct assessment through auscultation takes priority. Choice B, having the client void, and Choice C, checking vital signs, are important nursing actions but are not as urgent as assessing the lungs for potential complications in this scenario.

5. The clinician is assessing a client with a Stage 2 skin ulcer. Which of the following treatments is most effective to promote healing?

• A. Covering the wound with a dry dressing
• B. Using hydrogen peroxide soaks
• C. Leaving the area open to dry
• D. Applying a hydrocolloid or foam dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Applying a hydrocolloid or foam dressing is the most effective treatment to promote healing for a Stage 2 skin ulcer. These dressings create a moist environment that supports healing and prevents further tissue damage. Option A (covering the wound with a dry dressing) can lead to drying out the wound bed, hindering healing. Option B (using hydrogen peroxide soaks) can be too harsh and may damage the surrounding healthy tissue. Option C (leaving the area open to dry) can delay healing as it does not provide the necessary moist environment for optimal wound healing.

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