Nursing Elites

1. During an abdominal examination, a nurse in a provider’s office determines that a client has abdominal distention. The protrusion is at midline, the skin over the area is taut, and the nurse notes no involvement of the flanks. Which of the following possible causes of distention should the nurse suspect?

• A. Fat
• B. Fluid
• C. Flatus
• D. Hernias

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hernias.' Abdominal distention with a midline protrusion, taut skin, and no involvement of the flanks is characteristic of hernias. Hernias are caused by a weakness in the abdominal wall, allowing organs or tissues to protrude through. Fluid accumulation (ascites) typically presents with a more generalized distention, while fat accumulation may cause more diffuse distension rather than a focal midline protrusion. Flatus, or gas, would not typically present with a visible midline protrusion and taut skin like hernias.

2. A client with a terminal illness is being educated by a healthcare provider about declining resuscitation in a living will. The client asks, “What would happen if I arrived at the ED and I had difficulty breathing?”

• A. We would give you oxygen through a tube in your nose.
• B. We would initiate full resuscitation efforts.
• C. We would consult the living will and provide comfort care.
• D. We would not provide any medical intervention.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client has a living will that declines resuscitation. Therefore, if the client arrives at the emergency department with difficulty breathing, healthcare providers would consult the living will to understand the client's wishes. Providing comfort care, which may include oxygen therapy to alleviate symptoms, aligns with the client's preferences. Option A incorrectly suggests an intervention that goes against the client's wishes. Option B is incorrect because full resuscitation efforts are not in line with the client's choice to decline resuscitation. Option D is also incorrect as it does not consider the client's living will and the need to provide care according to the documented preferences of the client.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the nurse take to maintain patency of the tube?

• A. Flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration.
• B. Administer the medication with food to prevent nausea.
• C. Verify tube placement by aspirating stomach contents.
• D. Dilute the medication with normal saline before administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To maintain the patency of a nasogastric (NG) tube, it is essential to flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration. This action helps ensure that the tube remains open and free from blockages. Flushing the tube prevents any medication residue from causing blockages, maintaining its patency. Choice B is incorrect because administering medication with food does not relate to maintaining tube patency. Choice C is incorrect as verifying tube placement by aspirating stomach contents is related to confirming correct tube placement, not maintaining patency. Choice D is also incorrect because diluting the medication with normal saline is not primarily aimed at maintaining the tube's patency.

4. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

5. The client is being instructed on how to collect a clean catch urine specimen. Which sequence is appropriate for teaching?

• A. Void a little, clean the meatus, then collect specimen
• B. Clean the meatus, begin voiding, then catch urine stream
• C. Clean the meatus, then urinate into container
• D. Void continuously and catch some of the urine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for obtaining a clean catch urine specimen involves first cleaning the meatus to prevent contamination, then initiating voiding to catch the midstream urine. This method ensures that the sample is as uncontaminated as possible, making choice B the correct sequence. Option A is incorrect as cleaning the meatus should be done before voiding. Option C is incorrect as it does not involve catching a midstream urine sample. Option D is incorrect as it suggests catching urine throughout the entire voiding process, which may lead to contamination.

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