Nursing Elites

1. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

2. A client with cardiovascular disease is being taught by a nurse how to reduce sodium and cholesterol intake. The nurse understands that the most significant factor in planning dietary changes for this client is:

• A. Client’s financial resources
• B. Involvement of the client in planning the change
• C. Availability of low-sodium foods
• D. Frequency of dietary counseling sessions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most significant factor in planning dietary changes for a client with cardiovascular disease is the involvement of the client in planning the change. By involving the client in the planning process, the nurse ensures that the client takes ownership of their health and is more likely to adhere to and succeed in modifying dietary habits. This empowerment and engagement enhance the client's motivation and commitment to making sustainable changes. Financial resources, availability of low-sodium foods, and frequency of dietary counseling sessions are important considerations but are not as crucial as the client's active involvement in the planning process.

3. A nurse is caring for a competent adult client who tells the nurse, 'I am leaving the hospital this morning whether the doctor discharges me or not.' The nurse believes that this is not in the client’s best interest and prepares to administer a PRN sedative medication the client has not requested along with the scheduled morning medication. Which of the following types of tort is the nurse about to commit?

• A. Assault
• B. False imprisonment
• C. Negligence
• D. Breach of confidentiality

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is about to commit false imprisonment by unlawfully restricting the client's freedom of movement. In this scenario, the nurse's actions of preparing to administer sedative medication against the client's will in an effort to prevent them from leaving the hospital constitute false imprisonment. Assault (choice A) involves the threat of bodily harm, which is not present here. Negligence (choice C) refers to a breach in the duty of care, which is not the primary issue in this situation. Breach of confidentiality (choice D) involves disclosing confidential information without consent, which is unrelated to the scenario described.

4. Under the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act, what are nurse managers required to do?

• A. Maintain an environment free from associated hazards
• B. Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals
• C. Make all necessary accommodations for disabled individuals
• D. Consider both mental and physical disabilities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals.' The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) mandates nurse managers to offer reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals to ensure equal opportunities in the workplace. Choice A is incorrect because although maintaining a hazard-free environment is essential, the focus of the ADA is on accommodations for disabled individuals. Choice C is incorrect as it overly generalizes the accommodations without specifying the need for them to be 'reasonable.' Choice D is incorrect because the ADA does not specify a requirement to consider both mental and physical disabilities; instead, it emphasizes providing reasonable accommodations regardless of the disability type.

5. A patient is placed in the Sims' position. Which areas will the nurse observe for pressure points?

• A. Chin, elbow, hips
• B. Ileum, clavicle, humerus
• C. Shoulder, anterior iliac spine, ankles
• D. Occipital region of the head, coccyx, heels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is placed in the Sims' position, the nurse should observe pressure points on the ileum, clavicle, humerus, knees, and ankles. Choice A is incorrect as the chin and hips are not typically pressure points in the Sims' position. Choice C is incorrect as the shoulder and anterior iliac spine are not commonly observed pressure points in this position. Choice D is also incorrect as the occipital region of the head, coccyx, and heels are not pressure points commonly associated with the Sims' position.

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