Nursing Elites

1. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

2. A client with a history of heart failure presents with increased shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?

• A. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level.
• B. Assess the client's apical pulse.
• C. Check for jugular vein distention.
• D. Measure the client's urine output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking for jugular vein distention is crucial in assessing fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, which can be a sign of worsening heart failure. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate information on fluid status. Assessing the apical pulse (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring heart rate but may not directly indicate fluid overload. Measuring urine output (Choice D) is essential for assessing renal function and fluid balance but does not provide immediate information on fluid overload in this scenario.

3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged with home oxygen therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will keep my oxygen tank upright at all times.
• B. I will not use petroleum jelly to keep my nose from drying out.
• C. I will not smoke or allow others to smoke around me.
• D. I will call my doctor if I have difficulty breathing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Petroleum jelly is flammable and should not be used with oxygen therapy as it can increase the risk of fire. Using petroleum jelly near oxygen can lead to a fire hazard. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements that indicate proper understanding of oxygen therapy safety measures. Choice A emphasizes the importance of keeping the oxygen tank upright to prevent leaks, choice C highlights the necessity of avoiding smoking to prevent exacerbation of COPD, and choice D encourages seeking medical help promptly in case of breathing difficulties.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a central venous catheter. What is the most important action for the nurse to take to prevent infection?

• A. Change the catheter dressing every 72 hours.
• B. Flush the catheter with heparin solution daily.
• C. Ensure the catheter is clamped when not in use.
• D. Maintain sterile technique when handling the catheter.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Maintaining sterile technique when handling a central venous catheter is crucial in preventing infections. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours, while important for overall catheter care, does not directly address infection prevention. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily is essential for maintaining patency but does not primarily prevent infections. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use is important for preventing air embolism but is not the most critical action to prevent infection. The most effective way to prevent infections is by strictly adhering to sterile techniques during catheter handling, which minimizes the risk of introducing pathogens into the catheter site.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client’s medications. They include cimetidine and imipramine. Knowing that cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, the healthcare professional should identify that this combination is likely to result in which of the following effects?

• A. Decreased therapeutic effects of cimetidine
• B. Increased risk of imipramine toxicity
• C. Decreased risk of adverse effects of cimetidine
• D. Increased therapeutic effects of imipramine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, it leads to an increased concentration of imipramine in the body, which can result in imipramine toxicity. This increased risk of toxicity is the likely effect of this drug interaction. Choice A is incorrect because cimetidine's effect on imipramine metabolism does not impact the therapeutic effects of cimetidine. Choice C is incorrect because the interaction does not decrease the risk of adverse effects of cimetidine. Choice D is incorrect as the increased concentration of imipramine can lead to toxicity, not increased therapeutic effects.

Similar Questions