Nursing Elites

1. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to ensure proper administration?

• A. Check the placement of the tube by auscultation.
• B. Flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration.
• C. Administer the medication with food to prevent nausea.
• D. Dilute the medication with normal saline before administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure proper administration through a nasogastric tube, the LPN/LVN should flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration. This action helps ensure the tube is patent, prevents clogging, and helps deliver the medication effectively. Checking the placement of the tube by auscultation (Choice A) is essential but does not directly relate to ensuring proper administration. Administering the medication with food (Choice C) may not always be appropriate for all medications and may not necessarily prevent nausea. Diluting the medication with normal saline (Choice D) is not a standard practice for all medications administered via an NG tube and may alter the medication's effectiveness.

3. The healthcare provider retrieves hydromorphone 4mg/mL from the Pyxis MedStation, an automated dispensing system, for a client who is receiving hydromorphone 3 mg IM every 6 hours PRN for severe pain. How many mL should the healthcare provider administer to the client?

• A. 0.75 mL
• B. 1 mL
• C. 0.8 mL
• D. 1.2 mL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct dosage calculation is to divide the prescribed dose by the concentration of the medication to determine the volume needed. In this case, 3 mg (prescribed dose) divided by 4 mg/mL (concentration) equals 0.75 mL. Therefore, the healthcare provider should administer 0.75 mL of hydromorphone to the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume based on the prescription and concentration provided.

4. When performing cardiac chest compressions, what is a critical concept that the nurse must understand?

• A. Push hard and deep on the chest
• B. Compress the chest at a rapid rate
• C. Perform compressions with minimal interruptions
• D. Use a two-handed technique for compressions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Push hard and deep on the chest.' Effective chest compressions during CPR should be forceful and deep enough to adequately circulate blood to vital organs. This helps maintain perfusion and increases the likelihood of a successful outcome. Compressing the chest at a rapid rate (choice B) is important but not as critical as ensuring the compressions are hard and deep. Performing compressions with minimal interruptions (choice C) is also crucial to maintain blood flow. Using a two-handed technique for compressions (choice D) may be helpful but is not as critical as the depth and force of the compressions.

5. A nurse in a provider's office is collecting information from an older adult who reports that he has been taking acetaminophen 500 mg/day for severe joint pain. The nurse should instruct the client that large doses of acetaminophen could cause which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Liver damage
• B. Renal failure
• C. Gastric bleeding
• D. Heart attack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Large doses of acetaminophen can cause liver damage, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and excessive amounts can overwhelm the liver's ability to process it, leading to hepatotoxicity. Renal failure (Choice B) is not typically associated with acetaminophen use. Gastric bleeding (Choice C) is more commonly linked to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) rather than acetaminophen. Heart attack (Choice D) is not a recognized adverse effect of acetaminophen, which primarily affects the liver when taken in large amounts.

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