HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
- C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- D. Assess the client's urine output.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia, it indicates hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to assess and manage the client's condition effectively. Option A, encouraging the client to increase fluid intake, may exacerbate polyuria. Option C, administering insulin, should be done based on the healthcare provider's prescription after assessing the blood glucose level. Option D, assessing the client's urine output, is important but not the most immediate action needed in this scenario; monitoring blood glucose levels takes precedence.
2. A client is admitted with Atrial Fibrillation and is administered amiodarone (Cordarone). What therapeutic response should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm
- B. Pulse oximetry readings within normal range during activity
- C. Peripheral pulse points with adequate capillary refill
- D. Increase in exercise tolerance without shortness of breath
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm. Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to restore and maintain normal heart rhythm in clients with atrial fibrillation. It works by slowing down the electrical signals in the heart, helping to regulate the heartbeat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the therapeutic response expected from administering amiodarone in a client with atrial fibrillation. Pulse oximetry readings, peripheral pulses, capillary refill, and exercise tolerance are important assessments but are not the primary therapeutic goal of using amiodarone in this situation.
3. Tim, a 27-year-old man, has unusually narrow shoulders, low muscle mass, and has no facial and body hair. His doctor recently prescribed testosterone replacement therapy to him. Tim is most likely suffering from:
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
- B. Cystic fibrosis.
- C. Klinefelter syndrome.
- D. Huntington’s disease (HD).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tim's physical characteristics, such as narrow shoulders, low muscle mass, and lack of facial and body hair, are typical signs of Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic condition where males have an extra X chromosome (XXY). This leads to underdeveloped testes and reduced testosterone production, resulting in features like gynecomastia, sparse facial and body hair, and reduced muscle mass. Testosterone replacement therapy is commonly used to address the hormonal imbalance in individuals with Klinefelter syndrome. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder unrelated to the symptoms described in Tim's case. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic respiratory condition that does not present with the physical characteristics mentioned. Huntington’s disease (HD) is a neurodegenerative disorder primarily affecting motor function and cognition, not physical appearance and muscle mass.
4. While caring for a client receiving parenteral fluid therapy via a peripheral IV catheter, after which of the following observations should the nurse remove the IV catheter?
- A. Swelling and coolness are observed at the IV site.
- B. The client reports mild discomfort at the insertion site.
- C. The infusion rate is slower than expected.
- D. The IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Swelling and coolness at the IV site can indicate complications such as infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage or fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues. Prompt removal of the IV catheter is essential to prevent further complications. The client reporting mild discomfort at the insertion site is common during IV therapy and does not necessarily warrant catheter removal unless there are signs of infiltration. A slower than expected infusion rate may not always necessitate IV catheter removal; the nurse should troubleshoot potential causes such as kinks in the tubing or pump malfunctions first. Just because the IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment does not automatically mean it should be removed; proper assessment and monitoring for complications are still essential.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer methylprednisolone 10 mg by IV bolus. The amount available is methylprednisolone injection 40-mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 0.3 mL
- B. 0.25 mL
- C. 0.4 mL
- D. 0.5 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the mL to administer, use the formula: Dose required (mg) ÷ Stock concentration (mg/mL) = Volume to administer (mL). In this case, 10 mg ÷ 40 mg/mL = 0.25 mL. However, when rounding to the nearest tenth, the answer should be 0.3 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.3 mL. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B (0.25 mL) is the result obtained before rounding. Choice C (0.4 mL) and Choice D (0.5 mL) are incorrect calculations.