a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin lanoxin which finding should the lpnlvn report to the healthcare provider immediately
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1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

2. A client has had their diet prescription changed to a mechanical soft diet. Which of the following food items should the nurse remove from the client's breakfast tray?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: sunny side up (fried) eggs.' Fried eggs should be removed as they are not suitable for a mechanical soft diet due to their texture. The yolk of a fried egg is usually too hard and can be difficult for a client on a mechanical soft diet to chew and swallow. Poached or scrambled eggs are better alternatives for this diet as they are softer and easier to consume. Choices A, B, and C are all suitable for a mechanical soft diet as they are softer in texture and easier to chew and swallow.

3. Postoperatively, signs of hemorrhagic shock are observed. The nurse notifies the surgeon, who instructs to continue monitoring vitals every 15 minutes and report back in one hour. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to continue monitoring the patient as instructed. This is crucial to assess the patient's condition and response to initial interventions. Administering IV fluids or preparing for transfer to the ICU should only be done based on further assessment or explicit orders from the healthcare provider. Notifying the nurse manager, as suggested in choice A, without further assessment or intervention could delay immediate patient care and management.

4. When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what assessment finding must the healthcare provider confirm before beginning chest compressions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of a pulse. Prior to initiating chest compressions during CPR, it is essential to confirm the absence of a pulse. Chest compressions are indicated when there is no detectable pulse as it signifies cardiac arrest. Checking for a pulse is a critical step to ensure that CPR is performed on individuals who truly require it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because focusing on the presence of a pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure before starting chest compressions can delay life-saving interventions in a person experiencing cardiac arrest.

5. To ensure the safety of a client receiving a continuous intravenous normal saline infusion, how often should the LPN change the administration set?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the administration set every 72 to 96 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection by preventing the build-up of bacteria in the tubing. Changing the set too frequently (choices A, B, and C) may increase the chances of contamination and infection without providing additional benefits. Therefore, the LPN should follow the guideline of changing the administration set every 72 to 96 hours to maintain the client's safety during the continuous intravenous normal saline infusion.

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