Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

2. A nurse is caring for a client postoperatively. When the nurse prepares to change the dressing, the client says it hurts. Which intervention is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer pain medication 45 minutes prior to dressing change.
• B. Change the dressing quickly to minimize pain.
• C. Provide reassurance to the client that the pain will pass.
• D. Use a less painful dressing technique.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication before the dressing change is the priority action to help manage the client's pain effectively. This intervention ensures that the client is comfortable during the procedure. Changing the dressing quickly may cause more discomfort to the client. Providing reassurance is important but does not address the immediate pain concern. Using a less painful dressing technique may be helpful, but administering pain medication first is the priority to address the client's pain promptly.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with a wound infection. Which type of precautions should the nurse implement?

• A. Airborne precautions
• B. Droplet precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Standard precautions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contact precautions are necessary when caring for a client with a wound infection to prevent the spread of infection. Contact precautions involve practices such as wearing gloves and gowns, and ensuring proper hand hygiene. Airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted by small droplet nuclei that can remain suspended in the air, like tuberculosis. Droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets larger than 5 microns, such as influenza. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infection and include practices like hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment, and safe injection practices. In this case, since the client has a wound infection, the nurse should focus on implementing contact precautions to reduce the risk of spreading the infection to themselves or others.

4. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer ketorolac 0.5 mg/kg IV bolus every 6 hr to a school-age child who weighs 66 lb. The available ketorolac injection is 30 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 0.5 mL
• B. 1 mL
• C. 1.5 mL
• D. 2 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dose, first convert the weight from pounds to kilograms. The child weighs 66 lb, which is approximately 30 kg. The prescribed dose is 0.5 mg/kg, so for a 30 kg child, the dose would be 0.5 mg/kg x 30 kg = 15 mg. Since the available ketorolac injection is 30 mg/mL, the nurse should administer 15 mg ÷ 30 mg/mL = 0.5 mL per dose. Therefore, choice A (0.5 mL) is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the correct dose based on the child's weight and the concentration of the ketorolac injection.

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