Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving continuous IV fluid therapy via a peripheral vein in the left forearm. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed phlebitis at the IV site?

• A. Erythema along the path of the vein
• B. Pitting edema at the insertion site
• C. Coolness of the client’s left forearm
• D. Pallor of the client’s left forearm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema (redness) along the path of the vein is a classic sign of phlebitis, indicating inflammation of the vein. This occurs due to irritation or infection at the IV site. Pitting edema (choice B) is not typically associated with phlebitis but suggests fluid overload or poor circulation. Coolness (choice C) and pallor (choice D) of the forearm are not characteristic signs of phlebitis but may indicate impaired circulation or reduced blood flow to the area.

2. A healthcare provider is planning to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client who requires IV fluids. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Insert the IV catheter without using a tourniquet.
• B. Use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to avoid injury to fragile skin or veins.
• C. Insert the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle.
• D. Use a smaller gauge catheter to reduce vein trauma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When initiating IV therapy in older adults, it is essential to use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to prevent potential injury to fragile skin or veins. The use of a tourniquet can lead to increased venous pressure and potentially cause vein damage in older adult clients. Choice A is incorrect because inserting the IV catheter without a tourniquet can make locating veins more challenging. Choice C is incorrect as inserting the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle is not a recommended practice and can increase the risk of complications. Choice D is incorrect because using a smaller gauge catheter may not be appropriate for older adults who may require a larger gauge catheter for adequate fluid administration.

3. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

• A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
• B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
• C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
• D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus and a new prescription for insulin is being discharged. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to complete first?

• A. Provide the client with printed information on insulin self-administration.
• B. Obtain printed information on insulin self-administration.
• C. Make a copy of the medication reconciliation form for the client.
• D. Determine whether the client can afford the insulin administration supplies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining printed information on insulin self-administration should be the nurse's first priority. This action ensures that the client has the necessary knowledge to safely self-administer insulin at home. Providing the client with printed information (Choice A) is essential to empower the client with the required knowledge before considering additional resources. Making a copy of the medication reconciliation form for the client (Choice C) is important for documentation purposes but not as urgent as ensuring the client's understanding of insulin administration. Determining the client's ability to afford insulin administration supplies (Choice D) is crucial but should follow after ensuring the client is equipped with the necessary information for safe self-administration.

5. The healthcare provider is educating a client about dietary changes to prevent the recurrence of calcium oxalate kidney stones. Which food should the provider advise the client to avoid?

• A. Spinach
• B. Bananas
• C. Chicken
• D. Rice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spinach. Spinach is high in oxalate, a compound that can contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate kidney stones. Therefore, advising the client to avoid spinach is crucial in reducing the risk of stone recurrence. Bananas (choice B) are not high in oxalate and do not directly contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate stones, so they do not need to be avoided. Similarly, choices C and D, chicken, and rice, are not typically associated with high oxalate content, making them safe choices and do not need to be avoided specifically to prevent calcium oxalate kidney stones.

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