HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A child weighing 20 kg has a new prescription for cefoxitin at 80 mg/kg/day administered intravenously every 6 hours. How much cefoxitin should be administered with each dose?
- A. 400 mg
- B. 200 mg
- C. 1600 mg
- D. 100 mg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the amount of cefoxitin to be administered with each dose, first, calculate the total daily dose by multiplying the child's weight (20 kg) by the prescribed dose (80 mg/kg/day): 80 mg/kg/day × 20 kg = 1600 mg/day. Since the medication is administered every 6 hours (4 doses/day), divide the total daily dose by the number of doses: 1600 mg / 4 = 400 mg. Therefore, each dose should be 400 mg. Choice B (200 mg) is incorrect because it is half the calculated dose. Choice C (1600 mg) is incorrect as it represents the total daily dose, not the dose per administration. Choice D (100 mg) is incorrect as it is a quarter of the calculated dose.
2. A nurse is providing care to a 17-year-old client in the post-operative care unit (PACU) after an emergency appendectomy. Which finding is an early indication that the client is experiencing poor oxygenation?
- A. Abnormal breath sounds
- B. Cyanosis of the lips
- C. Increasing pulse rate
- D. Pulse oximeter reading of 92%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An increasing pulse rate can be an early sign of poor oxygenation as the body tries to compensate. Abnormal breath sounds (choice A) can indicate respiratory issues, but they may not always be an early sign of poor oxygenation. Cyanosis of the lips (choice B) is a late sign of inadequate oxygenation. A pulse oximeter reading of 92% (choice D) indicates mild hypoxemia but may not be considered an early indication of poor oxygenation.
3. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the teaching?
- A. I will take my warfarin at the same time every day.
- B. I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush while taking this medication.
- C. I should take my warfarin at bedtime.
- D. I should avoid eating foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking warfarin at the same time every day is essential to maintain a consistent blood level of the medication. This statement indicates that the client understands the teaching about the importance of consistency in medication timing. Choice B, regarding using a soft-bristled toothbrush, is not directly related to warfarin therapy and does not assess the client's understanding of warfarin administration. Choice C suggesting taking warfarin at bedtime is incorrect; it is generally recommended to take warfarin at the same time each day to avoid variations in drug levels. Choice D about avoiding foods high in vitamin K is relevant as vitamin K can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects. However, it is not the best indicator of understanding the teaching on medication timing, which is crucial for warfarin efficacy.
4. Which serum blood finding in diabetic ketoacidosis alerts the nurse that immediate action is required?
- A. pH below 7.3
- B. Potassium of 5.0
- C. HCT of 60
- D. PaO2 of 79%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A hematocrit (HCT) of 60 indicates severe dehydration, a critical condition in diabetic ketoacidosis that requires immediate intervention. Severe dehydration can lead to hypovolemic shock and organ failure. While a low pH below 7.3 is indicative of acidosis, it may not require immediate action compared to severe dehydration. A potassium level of 5.0 is within the normal range and not a critical finding in this scenario. PaO2 of 79% reflects oxygenation status, which is important but not the most critical finding requiring immediate action in diabetic ketoacidosis.
5. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?
- A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
- B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
- C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
- D. No special preparation is necessary
Correct answer: D
Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
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