Nursing Elites

1. A child weighing 20 kg has a new prescription for cefoxitin at 80 mg/kg/day administered intravenously every 6 hours. How much cefoxitin should be administered with each dose?

• A. 400 mg
• B. 200 mg
• C. 1600 mg
• D. 100 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the amount of cefoxitin to be administered with each dose, first, calculate the total daily dose by multiplying the child's weight (20 kg) by the prescribed dose (80 mg/kg/day): 80 mg/kg/day × 20 kg = 1600 mg/day. Since the medication is administered every 6 hours (4 doses/day), divide the total daily dose by the number of doses: 1600 mg / 4 = 400 mg. Therefore, each dose should be 400 mg. Choice B (200 mg) is incorrect because it is half the calculated dose. Choice C (1600 mg) is incorrect as it represents the total daily dose, not the dose per administration. Choice D (100 mg) is incorrect as it is a quarter of the calculated dose.

2. A female UAP is assigned to take the vital signs of a client with pertussis for whom droplet precautions have been implemented. The UAP requests a change in assignment as she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Advise the UAP to wear a standard face mask to take vital signs, and then get fitted for a filter mask before providing personal care
• B. Send the UAP to be fitted for a particulate filter mask immediately so she can provide care to this client
• C. Instruct the UAP that a standard mask is sufficient for the provision of care for the assigned client
• D. Before changing assignments, determine which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct course of action for the nurse is to determine which staff members have already been fitted for particulate filter masks before changing assignments. This ensures safety and compliance with infection control protocols. Option A is incorrect as wearing a standard face mask before being fitted for a filter mask does not address compliance with droplet precautions. Option B is incorrect because the priority is to ensure all staff members have appropriate equipment before providing care. Option C is incorrect as a standard mask may not offer sufficient protection when dealing with clients under droplet precautions.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood glucose. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. TPN delivers essential nutrients, including glucose, directly into the bloodstream. Clients on TPN are at risk of developing hyperglycemia due to the concentrated glucose infusion. Therefore, close monitoring of blood glucose levels is necessary to detect and prevent hyperglycemia-related complications such as osmotic diuresis, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte imbalances. While serum sodium, serum calcium, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are important parameters in various clinical scenarios, they are not specifically associated with TPN administration. These values are not the primary indicators to assess for complications in clients receiving TPN.

4. A nurse is providing care to a 17-year-old client in the post-operative care unit (PACU) after an emergency appendectomy. Which finding is an early indication that the client is experiencing poor oxygenation?

• A. Abnormal breath sounds
• B. Cyanosis of the lips
• C. Increasing pulse rate
• D. Pulse oximeter reading of 92%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An increasing pulse rate can be an early sign of poor oxygenation as the body tries to compensate. Abnormal breath sounds (choice A) can indicate respiratory issues, but they may not always be an early sign of poor oxygenation. Cyanosis of the lips (choice B) is a late sign of inadequate oxygenation. A pulse oximeter reading of 92% (choice D) indicates mild hypoxemia but may not be considered an early indication of poor oxygenation.

5. When assisting an older adult client with dysphagia following a CVA during mealtime, what should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Offer the client tart or sour foods.
• B. Ensure the client is sitting upright while eating.
• C. Provide soft and easily swallowable foods.
• D. Give the client thickened liquids to help with swallowing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is sitting upright while eating. This position helps prevent aspiration and facilitates swallowing. Offering tart or sour foods (Choice A) may not be suitable for someone with dysphagia as they can be difficult to swallow and may increase the risk of aspiration. Providing soft and easily swallowable foods (Choice C) is crucial for individuals with swallowing difficulties. While giving thickened liquids (Choice D) is a common intervention for dysphagia, the priority during mealtime should be ensuring the client's proper positioning to support safe swallowing and prevent aspiration.

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