a nurse is planning to document care provided for a client which of the following abbreviations should the nurse use
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HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank

1. A healthcare professional is planning to document care provided for a client. Which of the following abbreviations should the professional use?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PC for after meals. PC stands for 'post cibum,' which is the appropriate abbreviation for 'after meals' in medical documentation. Choices B, QD, and C, BID, represent 'every day' and 'twice a day,' respectively, which are not specific to meal times. Choice D, PRN, signifies 'as needed,' which is also not related to meal timings. Therefore, for documenting care provided after meals, the most suitable abbreviation is PC.

2. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who reports chills and aching joints. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the client has an infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell count (WBC 15,000/mm³) is a common indicator of infection as the body increases WBC production to fight off pathogens. In conditions like infections, inflammation, or stress, the WBC count can rise. The other options, hemoglobin, platelet count, and sodium levels, are not typically specific indicators of infection. Hemoglobin measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count assesses clotting ability, and sodium levels indicate electrolyte balance.

3. A patient has been diagnosed with osteoporosis and lactose intolerance. What intervention will the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient diagnosed with osteoporosis and lactose intolerance is to monitor their intake of vitamin D. Since the patient has lactose intolerance, encouraging dairy alternatives (Choice A) would not be appropriate. Increasing intake of caffeinated drinks (Choice C) is not beneficial for managing osteoporosis and may even have negative effects on bone health. Assisting the patient with daily activities (Choice D) is a general nursing intervention that may not directly address the specific needs related to osteoporosis and lactose intolerance.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.

5. Which task can the RN delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Checking the blood pressure of a 2-hour postoperative client is a task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) as it falls within their scope of practice. This task is routine and does not require specialized nursing knowledge or critical decision-making. Options A, B, and D involve tasks that require a higher level of training and critical thinking beyond the scope of a UAP. Taking a history, adjusting tube feeding rates, and monitoring a client receiving chemotherapy are responsibilities that should be performed by licensed healthcare providers who have the necessary skills and training.

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