a nurse is planning to document care provided for a client which of the following abbreviations should the nurse use
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HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank

1. A healthcare professional is planning to document care provided for a client. Which of the following abbreviations should the professional use?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PC for after meals. PC stands for 'post cibum,' which is the appropriate abbreviation for 'after meals' in medical documentation. Choices B, QD, and C, BID, represent 'every day' and 'twice a day,' respectively, which are not specific to meal times. Choice D, PRN, signifies 'as needed,' which is also not related to meal timings. Therefore, for documenting care provided after meals, the most suitable abbreviation is PC.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has fluid overload. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client has fluid overload, the nurse's first action should be to evaluate electrolytes. Electrolyte levels can be significantly affected by fluid imbalances, and assessing them will guide the nurse in determining the appropriate interventions. Restricting fluid intake (choice B) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering diuretics (choice C) should be based on the electrolyte evaluation and overall assessment. Monitoring vital signs (choice D) is essential but does not provide direct information on the client's electrolyte status, which is crucial in managing fluid overload.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has hypernatremia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to infuse hypotonic IV fluids. In hypernatremia, there is an elevated sodium concentration in the blood, and diluting it with hypotonic fluids helps to lower the sodium levels. Implementing a fluid restriction or increasing sodium intake would worsen hypernatremia by further concentrating sodium in the body. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate is used for treating hyperkalemia, not hypernatremia.

4. A patient requires repositioning every 2 hours. Which task can the nurse delegate to the nursing assistive personnel?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Changing the patient's position.' Repositioning the patient involves physically moving and adjusting their position in bed, which is a task that can be safely delegated to nursing assistive personnel (NAP). This task does not require clinical judgment or assessment skills beyond the ability to follow guidelines for proper positioning. Choices A, C, and D involve assessments or judgments that require a higher level of training and knowledge, making them more appropriate for a nurse to perform. Choice A involves assessing comfort, which may involve subjective factors and individual preferences. Choice C involves identifying hazards related to immobility, which requires understanding the potential risks and complications associated with immobility. Choice D involves assessing circulation, which requires a higher level of clinical knowledge and understanding of circulatory issues.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.

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