Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a patient who needs to be placed in the prone position. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Place a pillow under the patient's lower legs.
• B. Turn the head toward one side with a large, soft pillow.
• C. Position legs flat against the bed.
• D. Raise the head of the bed to 45 degrees.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a pillow under the patient's lower legs when in the prone position is essential to allow dorsiflexion of the ankles and some knee flexion, which promote relaxation. This position also helps in maintaining proper alignment of the spine. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because turning the head, positioning legs flat against the bed, and raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees are not appropriate actions for a patient in the prone position. Turning the head to one side with a large, soft pillow is commonly done for patients in the supine position to maintain proper alignment and airway patency. Positioning legs flat against the bed is more suitable for a patient in a supine or semi-fowler's position. Raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees is typically done for patients who need semi-fowler's positioning for respiratory support or to prevent aspiration.

2. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Do not take the medication with milk to avoid reduced absorption.
• B. Brush and floss your teeth regularly to prevent gum disease.
• C. Avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of the medication.
• D. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of phenytoin. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with milk, as it may decrease its absorption. Choice B is unrelated to the medication and focuses on dental hygiene. Choice D is important but not directly related to phenytoin; it is more relevant to monitoring for adverse effects of the medication.

3. The healthcare provider is educating a client about dietary changes to prevent the recurrence of calcium oxalate kidney stones. Which food should the provider advise the client to avoid?

• A. Spinach
• B. Bananas
• C. Chicken
• D. Rice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spinach. Spinach is high in oxalate, a compound that can contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate kidney stones. Therefore, advising the client to avoid spinach is crucial in reducing the risk of stone recurrence. Bananas (choice B) are not high in oxalate and do not directly contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate stones, so they do not need to be avoided. Similarly, choices C and D, chicken, and rice, are not typically associated with high oxalate content, making them safe choices and do not need to be avoided specifically to prevent calcium oxalate kidney stones.

4. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional plan to initiate?

• A. Contact
• B. Droplet
• C. Airborne
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions (Choice C) involve measures such as negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Contact precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through direct contact with the patient or their environment. Droplet precautions (Choice B) are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, typically over short distances. Protective environment (Choice D) is used for clients who are immunocompromised to protect them from environmental pathogens, not for diseases like tuberculosis that spread through the air.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Gingival hyperplasia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.

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