a nurse is measuring bp of a client who has a fractured femur bp is 14094 mmhg and the client denies any history of htn which of the following actions
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HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet

1. A client with a fractured femur has a BP of 140/94 mmHg and denies any history of HTN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to ask the client if they are having pain. Pain can lead to temporary increases in blood pressure. Addressing pain as a potential cause is the initial step before considering medication adjustments. Requesting an antihypertensive medication or an antianxiety medication without assessing pain first would not address the immediate concern. Returning to recheck the BP can be done after addressing the potential pain issue.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about mixing regular and NPH insulin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rolling the NPH vial between the hands before drawing it up ensures proper mixing of the insulin. Choice B is incorrect because regular insulin should be drawn up first to avoid contamination. Choice C is incorrect as injecting air into the vial of regular insulin is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to wait 10 minutes after mixing the insulin before injecting it.

3. The client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! When a client is taking furosemide (Lasix), monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the potential for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Low potassium levels can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by furosemide to the same extent as potassium, making them less critical to monitor in this scenario.

4. A community health nurse is preparing a campaign about seasonal influenza. Which of the following plans should the nurse include as a secondary prevention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary prevention aims to detect and address health issues early. Screening older adults in nursing care facilities for early influenza manifestations is an example of secondary prevention by identifying cases at an early stage. Choice B, promoting hand hygiene, is a form of primary prevention that aims to prevent the occurrence of influenza. Choice C, administering influenza vaccinations, is a form of primary prevention as well, focusing on preventing the disease before it occurs. Choice D, educating about healthy lifestyle choices, is more related to health promotion and primary prevention rather than secondary prevention.

5. When evaluating a client's plan of care, the LPN determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action will the LPN implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the LPN to take when a desired outcome is not achieved is to note which actions were not implemented. This step helps in identifying gaps in the plan of care and reasons for not achieving the desired outcome. Establishing a new nursing diagnosis (Choice A) is not the initial step when evaluating the plan of care. Adding additional nursing orders (Choice C) may not address the root cause of the unachieved outcome. Collaborating with the healthcare provider (Choice D) should come after identifying the gaps in the plan and reasons for the outcome not being met.

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