Nursing Elites

1. A client with a fractured femur has a BP of 140/94 mmHg and denies any history of HTN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Request a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
• B. Ask the client if they are having pain.
• C. Request a prescription for an antianxiety medication.
• D. Return in 30 minutes to recheck the client’s BP.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to ask the client if they are having pain. Pain can lead to temporary increases in blood pressure. Addressing pain as a potential cause is the initial step before considering medication adjustments. Requesting an antihypertensive medication or an antianxiety medication without assessing pain first would not address the immediate concern. Returning to recheck the BP can be done after addressing the potential pain issue.

2. A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. What transmission precautions are necessary?

• A. Droplet
• B. Contact
• C. Airborne
• D. Standard

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is primarily spread through droplet transmission, which occurs when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks, releasing respiratory droplets containing the bacteria. Therefore, the correct precaution for caring for a client with pharyngeal diphtheria is droplet precautions. Droplet precautions help prevent the transmission of respiratory pathogens over short distances via respiratory droplets. Contact precautions are used for diseases spread through direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Airborne precautions are used for diseases that spread through small droplets suspended in the air. Standard precautions are basic infection prevention practices applying to all patient care.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a vest restraint. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Tie the restraint with a quick-release knot.
• B. Use a slipknot to secure the restraint.
• C. Ensure the restraint is tightly secured.
• D. Attach the restraint to the bed frame.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional to take when applying a vest restraint is to tie it with a quick-release knot. A quick-release knot allows for easy and rapid removal in case of an emergency, ensuring the safety of the client. Using a slipknot (Choice B) is not recommended as it may not provide quick release in emergencies. Ensuring the restraint is tightly secured (Choice C) can be dangerous as it can restrict circulation or cause discomfort. Attaching the restraint to the bed frame (Choice D) is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or injury to the client.

4. At the surgical scrub sink, a surgical nurse demonstrated the proper surgical handwashing technique by scrubbing:

• A. With her hands held lower than her elbows
• B. With her hands held higher than her elbows
• C. With her hands in a fist position
• D. With hands placed on her chest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for surgical handwashing involves scrubbing with hands held higher than the elbows. This positioning helps prevent water from the contaminated area (the hands) from flowing towards the cleaner area (the elbows). This directional flow minimizes the risk of contaminating the scrubbed hands during the handwashing process. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A - having hands lower than elbows would risk contamination of the clean area, C - using a fist position does not ensure proper coverage and thorough handwashing, and D - placing hands on the chest is not part of the proper surgical handwashing technique.

5. The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female client with bulimia. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Increased serum glucose
• B. Decreased albumin
• C. Decreased potassium
• D. Increased sodium retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Decreased potassium.' Clients with bulimia often have decreased potassium levels due to frequent vomiting, which causes a loss of this essential electrolyte. This loss can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Option A, 'Increased serum glucose,' is not typically associated with bulimia. Option B, 'Decreased albumin,' is more related to malnutrition or liver disease rather than bulimia. Option D, 'Increased sodium retention,' is not a common finding in clients with bulimia; instead, they may experience electrolyte imbalances like hyponatremia due to purging behaviors.

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