Nursing Elites

1. A client has just returned from surgery with an indwelling urinary catheter in place. What is the most important action for the nurse to take to prevent infection?

• A. Change the catheter every 72 hours.
• B. Ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks.
• C. Clean the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily.
• D. Irrigate the catheter with normal saline every shift.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most crucial action to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks. Kinks in the tubing can lead to urine retention or obstruction, increasing the risk of infection. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not necessary if there are no signs of infection or other issues. Cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily is important for hygiene but not the most critical action to prevent infection related to the catheter. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline every shift is not a routine practice and may increase the risk of introducing pathogens into the urinary system.

2. A charge nurse is assigning client care for four clients. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to a PN?

• A. Creating a plan of care for a client who is recovering following a stroke.
• B. Assessing a pressure injury on a client who is on bed rest.
• C. Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia.
• D. Teaching a client who has asthma to use a metered-dose inhaler.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia. This task falls within the practical nurse's scope of practice, as it involves direct patient care and basic interventions. Creating a plan of care for a client recovering from a stroke involves critical thinking and comprehensive assessment, which are typically responsibilities of registered nurses. Assessing a pressure injury requires specialized wound care knowledge, often performed by wound care specialists or registered nurses with wound care training. Teaching a client to use a metered-dose inhaler involves patient education and requires a thorough understanding of asthma management, making it more suitable for a registered nurse.

3. A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse?

• A. Diffuse expiratory wheezing
• B. Loose, productive cough
• C. No relief from inhaler
• D. Fever and chills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an acute asthma attack, one of the expected assessments by the nurse would be diffuse expiratory wheezing. This occurs due to narrowed airways and increased airflow velocity. Choice B, a loose productive cough, is not typically associated with an asthma attack. Choice C, no relief from inhaler, may indicate ineffective treatment but is not a direct assessment finding related to the physical examination. Choice D, fever and chills, are not typical symptoms of an asthma attack and would not be expected findings during the initial assessment of an acute asthma attack.

4. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

• A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
• B. Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
• C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
• D. Glascow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting a client in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing, the nurse should document the Glasgow Coma Scale score to assess the level of consciousness and the regularity of respirations. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide a specific assessment like the Glasgow Coma Scale score. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 indicates a more alert state than described in the scenario.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

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