Nursing Elites

1. Prior to a client being transported for a chest x-ray, what should a healthcare professional do first?

• A. Identify the client using two identifiers
• B. Confirm the client's fasting status
• C. Check the client's allergies to contrast media
• D. Explain the procedure to the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Identifying the client using two identifiers is the crucial first step to ensure correct patient identification before any procedure. This process helps prevent errors and ensures that the right procedure is performed on the right patient. Confirming the client's identity is the top priority before addressing other aspects such as fasting status, allergies, or explaining the procedure. While confirming fasting status and checking for allergies are important, they are secondary to confirming the client's identity. Explaining the procedure to the client is also essential but should occur after ensuring proper identification.

2. A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

• A. A nurse tied a client's restraints straps to the moveable part of the bed frame.
• B. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has TB before transporting her to radiology.
• C. A nurse administered a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due.
• D. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An incident report should be completed when a nurse administers medication to a client significantly earlier than the scheduled time. This deviation from the prescribed schedule could potentially impact the client's treatment plan and requires documentation for proper evaluation and follow-up. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily require an incident report. Choice A involves improper restraint application, which is a safety issue but does not directly involve medication administration. Choice B involves a protective measure for a client with TB, which is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Choice D describes an increase in IV fluid administration, which may need monitoring but does not necessarily indicate a need for an incident report unless there are specific complications or adverse effects related to the additional fluid.

3. A nurse on a med-surg unit is teaching a newly licensed nurse about tasks to delegate to APs. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. An AP may take orthostatic blood pressure measurements from a client who reports dizziness.
• B. An AP may monitor the peripheral IV insertion site of a client who is receiving replacement fluids.
• C. An AP may perform a central line dressing change for a client who is ready for discharge.
• D. An AP may ambulate a client who had a stroke 2 days ago.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Delegating the task of ambulating a client who had a stroke 2 days ago to an AP is appropriate. This task falls within the scope of practice for an AP and can help promote mobility and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C involve more complex nursing assessments or procedures that require a higher level of training and expertise. Taking orthostatic blood pressure measurements, monitoring a peripheral IV insertion site, and performing a central line dressing change should be tasks performed by licensed nurses to ensure proper assessment and management of the client's condition.

4. During a staff meeting, a nurse is discussing the purpose of regulatory agencies. Which of the following tasks should the nurse identify as the responsibility of state licensing boards?

• A. Monitoring evidence-based practice for clients with specific diagnoses.
• B. Ensuring that health care providers comply with regulations.
• C. Setting quality standards for accrediting health care facilities.
• D. Determining the safety of medications for administration to clients.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: State licensing boards are primarily responsible for ensuring that health care providers comply with regulations. This includes overseeing licensure requirements, investigating complaints, and enforcing disciplinary actions. Monitoring evidence-based practice for clients with specific diagnoses is typically within the domain of professional organizations or healthcare institutions. Setting quality standards for accrediting health care facilities is usually the role of accrediting bodies such as The Joint Commission. Lastly, determining the safety of medications for administration to clients falls under the purview of regulatory agencies like the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

5. The healthcare provider is providing oral care to an unconscious patient and notes that the patient has extremely bad breath. Which term will the healthcare provider use when reporting to the oncoming shift?

• A. Cheilitis
• B. Halitosis
• C. Glossitis
• D. Dental caries

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct term the healthcare provider will use when reporting the extremely bad breath of the unconscious patient to the oncoming shift is 'Halitosis' (Choice B). Halitosis specifically refers to bad breath. Cheilitis (Choice A) is inflammation of the lips, not related to bad breath. Glossitis (Choice C) is inflammation of the tongue, not directly associated with bad breath. Dental caries (Choice D) are cavities in the teeth, which can contribute to bad breath but are not the term used to describe bad breath itself.

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