Nursing Elites

1. Prior to a client being transported for a chest x-ray, what should a healthcare professional do first?

• A. Identify the client using two identifiers
• B. Confirm the client's fasting status
• C. Check the client's allergies to contrast media
• D. Explain the procedure to the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Identifying the client using two identifiers is the crucial first step to ensure correct patient identification before any procedure. This process helps prevent errors and ensures that the right procedure is performed on the right patient. Confirming the client's identity is the top priority before addressing other aspects such as fasting status, allergies, or explaining the procedure. While confirming fasting status and checking for allergies are important, they are secondary to confirming the client's identity. Explaining the procedure to the client is also essential but should occur after ensuring proper identification.

2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client who does not speak the same language. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Use proper medical terms when providing instructions to the client.
• B. Offer written instructions in the client’s language.
• C. Direct verbal discharge instructions to the interpreter.
• D. Request that an assistive personnel interpret instructions for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare provider when providing discharge teaching to a client who does not speak the same language is to offer written instructions in the client’s language. This approach helps ensure better comprehension and adherence to the instructions as the client can refer back to the written material for clarification. Choice A is incorrect because using proper medical terms may not be effective if the client does not understand the language. Choice C is incorrect since verbal instructions should be directed to the client for better understanding. Choice D is incorrect as assistive personnel may not be qualified or trained to provide accurate interpretation, risking miscommunication and potential errors in the instructions.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of hypertension. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
• B. Irregular heart rate
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath in a client with a history of hypertension is a critical assessment finding as it may indicate heart failure, pulmonary edema, or other severe complications. The development of shortness of breath suggests that the client's condition may be rapidly deteriorating and requires immediate medical attention. Elevated blood pressure (150/90 mmHg) is concerning but not as acute as the potential complications associated with shortness of breath. An irregular heart rate and headache can also be symptoms of hypertension, but in this scenario, shortness of breath poses a higher risk of severe cardiovascular or respiratory issues.

4. The nurse assesses a client who has a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. To assess for skin damage related to the cannula, which areas should the nurse observe?

• A. Tops of the ears
• B. Bridge of the nose
• C. Around the nostrils
• D. Over the cheeks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is using a nasal cannula for oxygen therapy, the areas prone to skin damage are the tops of the ears and around the nostrils. The pressure exerted by the cannula on these areas can lead to skin breakdown, so it is important for the nurse to observe these sites for any signs of damage. The correct answer is 'Tops of the ears.' Choices 'Bridge of the nose' and 'Over the cheeks' are not typically areas where skin damage related to the cannula would occur, making them incorrect choices.

5. Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are labeled 1.5 grains per tablet. How many tablets should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?

• A. 0.5 tablet
• B. 1 tablet
• C. 1.5 tablets
• D. 2 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, convert the prescribed dose of Seconal from grams to grains. Since 1 gram is equal to approximately 15.43 grains, 0.1 gram is roughly 1.543 grains. Given that each tablet contains 1.5 grains, administering 1 tablet (which is slightly more than the 1.543 grains needed) provides the correct dose of Seconal. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should plan to administer 1 tablet. Choice A (0.5 tablet) is incorrect as it would provide less than the required dose. Choice C (1.5 tablets) and Choice D (2 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the necessary dosage.

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