Nursing Elites

1. A client with a terminal illness is being educated by a healthcare provider about declining resuscitation in a living will. The client asks, “What would happen if I arrived at the ED and I had difficulty breathing?”

• A. We would give you oxygen through a tube in your nose.
• B. We would initiate full resuscitation efforts.
• C. We would consult the living will and provide comfort care.
• D. We would not provide any medical intervention.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client has a living will that declines resuscitation. Therefore, if the client arrives at the emergency department with difficulty breathing, healthcare providers would consult the living will to understand the client's wishes. Providing comfort care, which may include oxygen therapy to alleviate symptoms, aligns with the client's preferences. Option A incorrectly suggests an intervention that goes against the client's wishes. Option B is incorrect because full resuscitation efforts are not in line with the client's choice to decline resuscitation. Option D is also incorrect as it does not consider the client's living will and the need to provide care according to the documented preferences of the client.

2. While caring for a client who begins to experience a generalized seizure while standing in her room, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place a pad under the client’s head
• B. Hold the client’s limbs tightly to prevent injury
• C. Lift the client into bed with the help of other staff members
• D. Insert a bite block into the client’s mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a seizure, the priority is to protect the client's head and ensure their safety. The nurse should guide the client to the ground if possible and place a soft pad or a folded cloth under the head to prevent injury. Restraining the client's limbs can result in injury and should be avoided. Lifting the client can also lead to injuries during a seizure. Inserting a bite block is contraindicated as it can cause damage to the teeth, oral tissues, and obstruct the airway. Therefore, the correct action is to place a pad under the client's head to protect them during the seizure.

3. During a physical assessment, a nurse is assessing 4 adult clients. Which of the following physical assessment techniques should the nurse use?

• A. Ensure the bladder of the BP cuff surrounds 80% of their arm.
• B. Use the BP cuff on the forearm if the upper arm is not accessible.
• C. Apply the BP cuff loosely around the arm.
• D. Use a pediatric cuff for adults with small arms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the bladder of the BP cuff surrounds 80% of the arm. This technique is crucial for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. Choice B is incorrect because using the BP cuff on the forearm may lead to inaccurate readings. Choice C is incorrect as applying the BP cuff loosely can also result in inaccurate measurements. Choice D is incorrect because using a pediatric cuff for adults with small arms would not provide accurate blood pressure readings.

4. A mother of a child with a neural tube defect asks the nurse what she can do to decrease the chances of having another baby with a neural tube defect. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.
• B. Multivitamin supplements are recommended during pregnancy.
• C. A well-balanced diet promotes normal fetal development.
• D. Increased dietary iron improves the health of mother and fetus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.' Folic acid supplementation before and during early pregnancy has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because while multivitamin supplements are beneficial during pregnancy, the specific focus for preventing neural tube defects is on folic acid. Choice C is a general statement about a well-balanced diet and does not specifically address neural tube defects. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on dietary iron, which is important for overall health but not specifically proven to prevent neural tube defects.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

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