Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Morphine sulfate
• C. Meperidine (Demerol)
• D. Promethazine (Phenergan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse how to perform a capillary blood glucose test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Don sterile gloves after cleansing the site
• B. Puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries
• C. Gently wipe the puncture site until a large droplet of blood forms
• D. Hold the finger below the heart level to puncture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries. This sequence helps ensure proper blood collection without introducing contaminants. Choice A is incorrect because wearing sterile gloves is not necessary for capillary blood glucose testing. Choice C is incorrect as wiping the puncture site can introduce contaminants and alter the blood sample. Choice D is incorrect as holding the finger below the heart level is not required for a capillary blood glucose test.

3. A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Mitral stenosis
• C. Aortic regurgitation
• D. Tricuspid stenosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.

4. During preoperative teaching, a client in a surgeon’s office expresses intent to prepare advance directives before surgery. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of advance directives?

• A. “I’d prefer my brother to make decisions, but I understand it must be my wife.”
• B. “I understand the surgery won’t proceed unless I fill out these forms.”
• C. “I plan to specify my wish to avoid being kept on a breathing machine.”
• D. “I will have my primary doctor review my plan before submitting it at the hospital.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement reflects the client's understanding of advance directives, as it indicates a specific preference regarding life-sustaining treatment. Advance directives enable individuals to outline their healthcare preferences, including decisions about treatments they wish to receive or avoid. Choice A mentions family members but doesn't address specific healthcare wishes; choice B focuses on the surgery rather than personal directives; choice D discusses doctor approval but lacks details about the directive itself.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

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