a client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the lpnlvn to administer
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals

1. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

2. A client with an aggressive form of prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider briefly discusses treatment options and leaves the room. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should offer support without pressuring the client. Stating, “I am available to talk if you should change your mind,” acknowledges the client's decision while leaving the door open for future discussions. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client's decision is final without offering further support. Choice C directs the client back to the provider without addressing the nurse's availability. Choice D commits to a future discussion without considering the client's current preference.

3. A staff nurse is teaching a newly hired nurse about alternatives to the use of restraints on clients who are confused. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging physical activity is an effective non-restraint intervention for managing confused clients. It helps reduce agitation, promotes circulation, and may decrease the need for restraints. Choice A is incorrect as using full-length side rails can potentially restrict a client's movement, which is counterproductive to avoiding restraints. Choice B, while emphasizing monitoring, does not directly address alternatives to restraint use. Choice D is also incorrect as removing clocks from the client's room does not directly address managing confusion and reducing the need for restraints.

4. When should discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure be initiated?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a client with an exacerbation of heart failure should begin during the admission process. Initiating discharge planning early ensures a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. Option B, after the client is stabilized, is not ideal because planning should start early to address potential barriers to discharge. Option C, when the client expresses readiness to go home, may be too late as discharge planning is a proactive process. Option D, just before the expected discharge date, does not allow enough time for comprehensive planning and coordination of post-discharge care needs.

5. A client has an order for 1000 ml of D5W over an 8-hour period. The nurse discovers that 800 ml has been infused after 4 hours. What is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Auscultate the lungs. When a significant amount of fluid has been infused, especially in a short period, it is crucial to assess for signs of fluid overload or pulmonary complications, such as crackles or decreased breath sounds. This can be achieved by auscultating the lungs. Choice A, asking the client about breathing problems, may provide valuable information, but direct assessment through auscultation takes priority. Choice B, having the client void, and Choice C, checking vital signs, are important nursing actions but are not as urgent as assessing the lungs for potential complications in this scenario.

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