a client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the lpnlvn to administer
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals

1. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

2. The patient is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which of the following laboratory values would be most important to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the white blood cell count is crucial when a patient is undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer. Chemotherapy can lead to neutropenia, a condition of low white blood cell count, which significantly increases the risk of infections. Monitoring white blood cell count helps healthcare providers intervene promptly to prevent severe infections. Hemoglobin level, while important in assessing oxygen-carrying capacity, is not the priority in this scenario. Serum creatinine and blood glucose levels are not directly impacted by chemotherapy for breast cancer.

3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has been prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Eating foods high in potassium can lead to hyperkalemia when taken with digoxin, indicating a need for further teaching. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements that demonstrate understanding of digoxin therapy. Taking the pulse, maintaining a consistent dosing schedule, and avoiding antacids to prevent interactions with digoxin are all appropriate client responses.

4. A client has left lower atelectasis. In which of the following positions should the nurse place the client for postural drainage?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postural drainage is a technique used to help remove secretions from specific lung segments. For left lower atelectasis, placing the client in the right lateral Trendelenburg position is most effective. This position helps target the affected area, using gravity to assist in drainage. Placing the client in a supine or low Fowler's position (Choice A) may not effectively target the affected area. Side lying with the right side of the chest elevated (Choice C) would not utilize gravity for optimal drainage. Placing the client prone with pillows under the extremities (Choice D) is not ideal for postural drainage of the left lower lobe.

5. A nurse on the IV team is conducting an in-service education program about the complications of IV therapy. Which of the following statements by an attendee indicates an understanding of the manifestations of infiltration? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is: 'The temperature around the IV site is cooler.' Cooler temperature around the site is indicative of infiltration, where IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing tissue swelling. The other options are incorrect: B) An increase in infusion rate is not a sign of infiltration; instead, it could indicate an issue with the infusion pump or the IV catheter. C) Redness around the IV site is more indicative of infection rather than infiltration. D) A damp IV dressing is more suggestive of a leak in the IV system, not infiltration.

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