Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is discussing the care of an infant with colic with the parents. What should the healthcare provider explain is the cause of colicky behavior?

• A. Inadequate peristalsis
• B. Paroxysmal abdominal pain
• C. An allergic response to certain proteins in milk
• D. A protective mechanism designed to eliminate foreign proteins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Colicky behavior in infants is primarily characterized by paroxysmal abdominal pain, resulting in excessive crying and fussiness. The pain episodes are often unpredictable and can be distressing for both the infant and the parents. Inadequate peristalsis (Choice A) refers to weak or ineffective bowel movements and is not the typical cause of colic. While some infants may experience colic due to an allergic response to certain proteins in milk (Choice C), this is not the primary cause of colic behavior in all infants. Choice D, a protective mechanism designed to eliminate foreign proteins, is not a recognized cause of colic. Therefore, the correct explanation for the cause of colicky behavior in infants is paroxysmal abdominal pain.

2. The parents of an infant ask the nurse why their baby is scheduled to receive the intramuscular polio vaccine rather than the oral vaccine. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular vaccine because it is safer.
• B. The consensus is that either can be used, since both produce the same results and are equally safe.
• C. The oral vaccine is more expensive, so the intramuscular vaccine is preferred unless it is contraindicated.
• D. The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends the intramuscular vaccine unless the infant or a family member is immunocompromised.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular polio vaccine because it has a better safety profile compared to the oral vaccine. Choice B is incorrect because the AAP specifically recommends the intramuscular vaccine over the oral vaccine. Choice C is incorrect as cost is not the primary reason for preferring the intramuscular vaccine. Choice D is incorrect as the recommendation is based on safety rather than the immunocompromised status of the infant or family members.

3. What is the primary treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome?

• A. corticosteroids
• B. antihypertensive agents
• C. long-term diuretics
• D. increased fluids to promote diuresis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome due to their immunosuppressive effects, which help reduce proteinuria and control the disease progression. Antihypertensive agents are not the primary treatment for this condition and are typically used to manage hypertension that may result from nephrotic syndrome. Long-term diuretics are not indicated in the treatment of minimal change nephrotic syndrome as they do not address the underlying cause. Increasing fluids to promote diuresis is not a recommended treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome, as it can exacerbate edema and fluid overload in these patients.

4. What would be important for the nurse to include when teaching an adolescent about tinea pedis?

• A. Keep your feet moist and exposed to the air as much as possible.
• B. Dry the area between your toes thoroughly.
• C. Wear nylon or synthetic socks every day.
• D. Walk barefoot in the school locker room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dry the area between your toes thoroughly.' When educating an adolescent about tinea pedis, emphasis should be placed on keeping the feet dry, especially between the toes, to minimize the risk of fungal infection. Choice A is incorrect as keeping the feet moist can exacerbate the condition. Choice C is incorrect because nylon or synthetic socks can trap moisture, promoting fungal growth. Choice D is incorrect as walking barefoot in locker rooms increases the risk of contracting tinea pedis from contaminated surfaces.

5. A child has been diagnosed with classic hemophilia. A nurse teaches the child’s parents how to administer the plasma component factor VIII through a venous port. It is to be given 3 times a week. What should the nurse tell them about when to administer this therapy?

• A. Whenever a bleed is suspected
• B. In the morning on scheduled days
• C. At bedtime while the child is lying quietly in bed
• D. On a regular schedule at the parents’ convenience

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering factor VIII in the morning on scheduled days is the correct choice. This timing ensures that the factor VIII levels remain stable throughout the day when the child is active and at risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because factor VIII should be given on a regular schedule rather than only when a bleed is suspected. Choice C is not ideal as the child may be more active during the day, increasing the risk of bleeding. Choice D is also incorrect as the administration should follow a specific schedule to maintain therapeutic levels of factor VIII in the child's system.

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