Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is discussing the care of an infant with colic with the parents. What should the healthcare provider explain is the cause of colicky behavior?

• A. Inadequate peristalsis
• B. Paroxysmal abdominal pain
• C. An allergic response to certain proteins in milk
• D. A protective mechanism designed to eliminate foreign proteins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Colicky behavior in infants is primarily characterized by paroxysmal abdominal pain, resulting in excessive crying and fussiness. The pain episodes are often unpredictable and can be distressing for both the infant and the parents. Inadequate peristalsis (Choice A) refers to weak or ineffective bowel movements and is not the typical cause of colic. While some infants may experience colic due to an allergic response to certain proteins in milk (Choice C), this is not the primary cause of colic behavior in all infants. Choice D, a protective mechanism designed to eliminate foreign proteins, is not a recognized cause of colic. Therefore, the correct explanation for the cause of colicky behavior in infants is paroxysmal abdominal pain.

2. A parent brings a 2-month-old infant with Down syndrome to the pediatric clinic for a physical and administration of immunizations. Which clinical finding should alert the nurse to perform a further assessment?

• A. Flat occiput
• B. Small, low-set ears
• C. Circumoral cyanosis
• D. Protruding furrowed tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Circumoral cyanosis should alert the nurse to perform further assessment in a 2-month-old infant with Down syndrome. This finding may indicate cardiac or respiratory issues, such as inadequate oxygenation. Small, low-set ears and a protruding furrowed tongue are common physical characteristics associated with Down syndrome and may not necessarily warrant immediate further assessment. A flat occiput is a normal variation in infant anatomy and is not typically a cause for immediate concern in this context.

3. A 6-year-old child with asthma is admitted to the hospital with an acute exacerbation. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administering a bronchodilator
• B. Administering an antihistamine
• C. Administering a corticosteroid
• D. Administering oxygen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention for a child experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. Bronchodilators help to dilate the airways, making breathing easier and relieving acute symptoms of asthma. Antihistamines are not the first-line treatment for asthma exacerbations; they are more commonly used for allergic reactions. Corticosteroids are beneficial in reducing inflammation in asthma but are usually administered after bronchodilators to provide long-term control. Oxygen therapy may be necessary in severe cases of asthma exacerbation, but bronchodilators take precedence in improving airway patency and respiratory distress.

4. During a nap, a 3-year-old hospitalized child wets the bed. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Ask the child to help with remaking the bed.
• B. Put clean sheets on the bed over a rubber sheet.
• C. Change the child’s clothes without discussing the incident.
• D. Explain that children should call the nurse when they need to go to the bathroom.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a 3-year-old hospitalized child wets the bed during a nap, the nurse should respond by changing the child’s clothes without discussing the incident. This approach helps to maintain the child's dignity, avoid embarrassment, and reduce anxiety related to bedwetting. Asking the child to help with remaking the bed (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it could cause unnecessary distress. Putting clean sheets on the bed over a rubber sheet (Choice B) addresses the aftermath but does not directly address the child's needs. Explaining that children should call the nurse when they need to go to the bathroom (Choice D) may not be effective in this immediate situation of bedwetting during a nap.

5. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Full-thickness burns involve the destruction of all layers of skin, extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn causes severe damage and loss of sensation due to nerve destruction. Choice A, erythema and pain, describes superficial burns (first-degree). Choice B, skin showing erythema followed by blister formation, describes partial-thickness burns (second-degree). Choice D, destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone, goes beyond the description of full-thickness burns.

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