Nursing Elites

1. When evaluating the laboratory report of a 1-year-old infant’s hematocrit, a healthcare provider compares it with the expected hematocrit range for this age group. What is the hematocrit of a healthy 12-month-old infant?

• A. 19% to 32%
• B. 29% to 41%
• C. 37% to 47%
• D. 42% to 69%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct hematocrit range for a healthy 12-month-old infant is between 37% to 47%. At this age, this range reflects the normal blood volume and red blood cell (RBC) levels in infants. Choice A (19% to 32%) is too low for a healthy hematocrit level in a 12-month-old. Choice B (29% to 41%) is also below the typical range for a 12-month-old. Choice D (42% to 69%) includes an upper limit that is higher than expected for a healthy infant, making it an incorrect option.

2. At 7 AM, a healthcare professional receives the information that an adolescent with diabetes has a 6:30 AM fasting blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action at this time?

• A. Encourage the adolescent to start exercising.
• B. Ask the adolescent to obtain an immediate glucometer reading.
• C. Inform the adolescent that a complex carbohydrate such as cheese should be eaten.
• D. Tell the adolescent that the prescribed dose of rapid-acting insulin should be administered.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct priority nursing action in this situation is to administer the prescribed dose of rapid-acting insulin. Rapid-acting insulin is necessary to help lower the elevated blood glucose level quickly, thereby preventing potential complications of hyperglycemia. Encouraging exercise, obtaining a glucometer reading, or suggesting consumption of complex carbohydrates like cheese may not address the immediate need to bring down the high blood glucose level effectively. Exercise could potentially raise blood glucose levels, obtaining a glucometer reading may delay necessary treatment, and consuming complex carbohydrates can further elevate blood glucose levels in this scenario.

3. A 3-year-old child with a history of frequent respiratory infections is being evaluated for cystic fibrosis. What diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate will be ordered?

• A. Chest X-ray
• B. Sweat chloride test
• C. Pulmonary function test
• D. Sputum culture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The sweat chloride test is the gold standard diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis as it measures the concentration of chloride in sweat. In cystic fibrosis, there is an abnormal transport of chloride across epithelial membranes, leading to elevated sweat chloride levels. A chest X-ray may show characteristic changes in the lungs associated with cystic fibrosis, but it is not a definitive diagnostic test. Pulmonary function tests assess lung function but do not specifically diagnose cystic fibrosis. Sputum culture may identify respiratory infections but does not confirm the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis.

4. After a discussion with the health care provider, the parents of an infant with patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) ask the nurse to explain once again what PDA is. How should the nurse respond?

• A. The diameter of the aorta is enlarged.
• B. The wall between the right and left ventricles is open.
• C. It is a narrowing of the entrance to the pulmonary artery.
• D. It is a connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It is a connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta.' Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is an abnormal connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, which normally closes after birth. Choices A, B, and C describe different cardiac conditions and do not accurately define PDA. Choice A is incorrect because PDA does not involve the diameter of the aorta being enlarged. Choice B is incorrect because PDA does not involve the wall between the right and left ventricles being open. Choice C is incorrect because PDA is not a narrowing of the entrance to the pulmonary artery.

5. A nurse is assessing the oral cavity of a 6-month-old infant. The parent asks which teeth will erupt first. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Incisors
• B. Canines
• C. Upper molars
• D. Lower molars

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Incisors. In infants, incisors are usually the first teeth to erupt, typically around 6 months of age. These are the front teeth used for cutting food. Canines (Choice B), upper molars (Choice C), and lower molars (Choice D) typically erupt after the incisors. Canines are sharp teeth used for tearing food, while molars are flat teeth used for grinding food.

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