Nursing Elites

1. When evaluating the laboratory report of a 1-year-old infant’s hematocrit, a healthcare provider compares it with the expected hematocrit range for this age group. What is the hematocrit of a healthy 12-month-old infant?

• A. 19% to 32%
• B. 29% to 41%
• C. 37% to 47%
• D. 42% to 69%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct hematocrit range for a healthy 12-month-old infant is between 37% to 47%. At this age, this range reflects the normal blood volume and red blood cell (RBC) levels in infants. Choice A (19% to 32%) is too low for a healthy hematocrit level in a 12-month-old. Choice B (29% to 41%) is also below the typical range for a 12-month-old. Choice D (42% to 69%) includes an upper limit that is higher than expected for a healthy infant, making it an incorrect option.

2. The nurse is teaching a father how to stimulate his 7-year-old son, who has a 'slow-to-warm-up' temperament. Which guidance will be most successful?

• A. Telling him to read stories to the child about famous athletes
• B. Suggesting he take the child to watch him play softball
• C. Urging him to sign the child up for little league football
• D. Proposing wrestling with the child and letting him win

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reading stories to the child about famous athletes would be the most successful guidance for a child with a 'slow-to-warm-up' temperament. This approach allows for a less active and more acceptable way of engaging with the child, aligning better with the child's temperament. Choices B, C, and D involve more active and potentially overwhelming activities for a child with such a temperament, which may not be as effective in stimulating and engaging the child.

3. What should the nurse include in the care plan for a 6-month-old infant admitted with a diagnosis of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?

• A. Provide small, frequent feedings
• B. Administer antibiotics
• C. Maintain strict isolation
• D. Elevate the head of the bed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed is crucial in the care plan for an infant with RSV as it helps improve breathing by facilitating better airflow and drainage of secretions. This position can also enhance comfort and reduce respiratory distress. Providing small, frequent feedings (Choice A) is generally beneficial for infants but is not specific to managing RSV. Administering antibiotics (Choice B) is not indicated for RSV as it is caused by a virus, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. Maintaining strict isolation (Choice C) is important to prevent the spread of contagious infections but is not a direct intervention for improving the infant's respiratory status in RSV.

4. Which of the following findings would indicate altered mental status in a small child?

• A. Recognizing the parents
• B. Showing fright at the EMT-B's presence
• C. Displaying a lack of attention to the EMT-B's presence
• D. Maintaining consistent eye contact with the EMT-B

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a small child, displaying a lack of attention to the EMT-B's presence would indicate altered mental status. This behavior suggests a diminished level of consciousness or awareness, which is concerning. Recognizing the parents (Choice A) is a normal and expected behavior for a child. Showing fright at the EMT-B's presence (Choice B) may indicate fear or anxiety but not necessarily altered mental status. Maintaining consistent eye contact with the EMT-B (Choice D) may indicate engagement or curiosity rather than altered mental status.

5. Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defects, and mitral valve stenosis
• B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
• C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta
• D. Altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta are the cardiac defects associated with Tetralogy of Fallot. In Tetralogy of Fallot, these specific abnormalities contribute to the classic features of the condition. Choice A is incorrect as it includes mitral valve stenosis, which is not typically part of Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice B describes transposition of the great arteries, not Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D mentions an altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, which is not a defining characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot.

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