Nursing Elites

1. When explaining a viral disease that begins with malaise and a highly pruritic rash starting on the abdomen, spreading to the face and proximal extremities, and potentially leading to severe complications, which childhood disease is a nurse discussing with members of a grammar school’s Parent-Teachers Association?

• A. Rubella
• B. Rubeola
• C. Chickenpox
• D. Scarlet fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Chickenpox (varicella). This viral disease typically starts with malaise and a highly pruritic rash that begins on the abdomen and then spreads to the face and proximal extremities. Chickenpox can result in serious complications such as pneumonia and encephalitis. Rubella (German measles) presents with a milder rash and is less pruritic than chickenpox. Rubeola (measles) is characterized by a rash that spreads from the head to the trunk. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria and is not a viral illness.

2. The child has been admitted for a sickle cell crisis. What would the nurse do first to provide adequate pain management?

• A. Administer a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) as ordered.
• B. Use guided imagery and therapeutic touch.
• C. Administer meperidine as ordered.
• D. Initiate pain assessment with a standardized pain scale.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Initiating pain assessment with a standardized pain scale is crucial in managing pain effectively during a sickle cell crisis. This step allows the nurse to objectively evaluate the child's pain level and tailor the pain management plan accordingly. Administering medication without a proper assessment could lead to inappropriate pain management. Using guided imagery and therapeutic touch may be beneficial as adjunct therapies but should not replace the initial pain assessment. Meperidine is not typically the first-line choice for pain management in sickle cell crisis due to its potential for neurotoxic metabolites.

3. After eating, a child with a diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) should be placed in what position as recommended by the nurse?

• A. Supine
• B. Prone
• C. Semi-Fowler's
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the child in a semi-Fowler's position after eating is beneficial for reducing symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux. This position helps prevent gastric contents from flowing back into the esophagus. The supine position (choice A) may worsen reflux symptoms by allowing gravity to assist in reflux, leading to discomfort and regurgitation. Prone position (choice B) is not recommended after eating as it may cause discomfort and increase the risk of aspiration due to pressure on the stomach. Trendelenburg position (choice D), with the head lower than the rest of the body, is not indicated for managing GERD after eating and may not provide the desired benefits in this context.

4. A nurse is evaluating a 3-year-old child’s developmental progress. The inability to perform which task indicates to the nurse that there is a developmental delay?

• A. Copying a square
• B. Hopping on one foot
• C. Catching a ball reliably
• D. Using a spoon effectively

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Copying a square. At 3 years old, children should be able to copy a square as part of their fine motor skill development. The inability to perform this task may indicate a developmental delay in fine motor skills. Choice B, hopping on one foot, typically develops around 4-5 years of age, so it is not a reliable indicator of a delay at 3. Choice C, catching a ball reliably, involves coordination skills that develop later in childhood, making it less relevant for a 3-year-old assessment. Choice D, using a spoon effectively, is more related to self-care and feeding skills rather than fine motor development, so it is not the best indicator of a developmental delay in this context.

5. Surgical repair for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is done to prevent the complication of

• A. pulmonary infection
• B. right-to-left shunt of blood
• C. decreased workload on the left side of the heart
• D. increased pulmonary vascular congestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Surgical repair of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) aims to prevent increased pulmonary vascular congestion, which can lead to congestive heart failure and respiratory distress. Choice A, pulmonary infection, is not a direct complication of PDA but rather a result of other factors. Choice B, right-to-left shunt of blood, is a characteristic of a different heart condition (e.g., Tetralogy of Fallot) and not specifically associated with PDA. Choice C, decreased workload on the left side of the heart, is not a typical complication of PDA but rather a consequence of left-to-right shunting that can cause volume overload in the pulmonary circulation.

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