HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Practice Questions
1. When explaining a viral disease that begins with malaise and a highly pruritic rash starting on the abdomen, spreading to the face and proximal extremities, and potentially leading to severe complications, which childhood disease is a nurse discussing with members of a grammar school’s Parent-Teachers Association?
- A. Rubella
- B. Rubeola
- C. Chickenpox
- D. Scarlet fever
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Chickenpox (varicella). This viral disease typically starts with malaise and a highly pruritic rash that begins on the abdomen and then spreads to the face and proximal extremities. Chickenpox can result in serious complications such as pneumonia and encephalitis. Rubella (German measles) presents with a milder rash and is less pruritic than chickenpox. Rubeola (measles) is characterized by a rash that spreads from the head to the trunk. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria and is not a viral illness.
2. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who becomes agitated when the nurse requests the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?
- B. Don't worry, it’s just for the surgery.
- C. You need to follow the instructions.
- D. The dentures need to be removed for a reason.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is to provide a clear rationale for the request, as stated in option D. By explaining the purpose behind removing the dentures, the nurse helps the client understand the necessity, which can reduce agitation and promote cooperation. Option A demonstrates empathy by addressing the client's potential concern about being seen without dentures but lacks a direct explanation. Option B dismisses the client's feelings with a casual statement that may not address the underlying issue. Option C is authoritarian and lacks empathy, potentially escalating the client's agitation.
3. A 3-year-old child has had multiple tooth extractions while under general anesthesia. The client returns from the post-anesthesia care unit crying but awake. Which approach is likely to be successful?
- A. Examine the mouth first
- B. Reassure the child
- C. Examine the mouth last
- D. Offer a pacifier
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial to prioritize the comfort of the child. By examining the mouth last, discomfort is minimized, and the child is given the opportunity to settle down. Choosing to examine the mouth first may escalate the distress of the child further. While reassuring the child is important, in this case, addressing the physical discomfort before providing emotional reassurance is more effective. Offering a pacifier may provide some comfort, but addressing the immediate physical discomfort by examining the mouth last is the most appropriate action to help the child settle down after the procedure.
4. The nurse is planning care for a 12-year-old child with sickle cell disease in a vaso-occlusive crisis affecting the elbow. Which one of the following should be the priority?
- A. Limiting fluids
- B. Client-controlled analgesia
- C. Applying cold compresses to the elbow
- D. Performing passive range of motion exercises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, the priority intervention is effective pain management. Client-controlled analgesia allows the child to self-administer pain relief as needed, promoting comfort and reducing stress. Limiting fluids (choice A) is not appropriate in this scenario as hydration is essential to prevent complications. Cold compresses (choice C) may provide some comfort but do not address the underlying pain. Passive range of motion exercises (choice D) are contraindicated during a vaso-occlusive crisis due to the risk of further pain and tissue damage.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. This is a common side effect that nurses should monitor for in clients taking beta-blockers. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting are not typical side effects associated with beta-blockers. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for bradycardia in this client.