Nursing Elites

1. When explaining a viral disease that begins with malaise and a highly pruritic rash starting on the abdomen, spreading to the face and proximal extremities, and potentially leading to severe complications, which childhood disease is a nurse discussing with members of a grammar school’s Parent-Teachers Association?

• A. Rubella
• B. Rubeola
• C. Chickenpox
• D. Scarlet fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Chickenpox (varicella). This viral disease typically starts with malaise and a highly pruritic rash that begins on the abdomen and then spreads to the face and proximal extremities. Chickenpox can result in serious complications such as pneumonia and encephalitis. Rubella (German measles) presents with a milder rash and is less pruritic than chickenpox. Rubeola (measles) is characterized by a rash that spreads from the head to the trunk. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria and is not a viral illness.

2. When evaluating a child with a diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) for medication management, what is an important assessment for the nurse to perform?

• A. Assess the child's sleep patterns
• B. Assess the child's dietary intake
• C. Assess the child's academic performance
• D. Assess the child's behavior at home

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the child's dietary intake is crucial as certain foods and additives can affect ADHD symptoms. Ensuring a balanced diet can help manage symptoms and provide proper nutrition. Assessing sleep patterns (Choice A) is also important, but dietary intake is more directly linked to symptom management in ADHD. Academic performance (Choice C) and behavior at home (Choice D) may be affected by ADHD but are not as directly related to medication management as dietary intake.

3. Surgical repair for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is done to prevent the complication of

• A. pulmonary infection
• B. right-to-left shunt of blood
• C. decreased workload on left side of the heart
• D. increased pulmonary vascular congestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: increased pulmonary vascular congestion. Surgical repair of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) aims to prevent the complications associated with increased pulmonary vascular congestion, such as pulmonary hypertension and heart failure. Choice A, pulmonary infection, is not a direct complication of PDA but can occur secondary to other conditions. Choice B, right-to-left shunt of blood, is a feature of some congenital heart defects but not a direct complication of PDA. Choice C, decreased workload on the left side of the heart, is not a primary reason for surgical repair of PDA, as the main concern is the impact on pulmonary circulation.

4. A 3-month-old infant has been hospitalized with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). What is the priority intervention?

• A. Administering an antiviral agent
• B. Clustering care to conserve energy
• C. Offering oral fluids to promote hydration
• D. Providing an antitussive agent when necessary

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a 3-month-old infant hospitalized with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is clustering care to conserve energy. Infants with RSV often struggle to breathe and require rest periods to recover. Clustering care involves organizing nursing activities to allow for rest intervals, reducing the infant's energy expenditure and aiding recovery. Administering antiviral agents is not the primary intervention for RSV since it is a viral infection, and antiviral medications may not be effective against RSV. While offering oral fluids is crucial for hydration, it may not be the priority when the infant is having respiratory difficulties. Providing an antitussive agent when necessary can help with coughing but is not the priority intervention for managing RSV in this scenario.

5. Which of the following statements regarding 2-rescuer child CPR is correct?

• A. The chest should not be allowed to fully recoil in between compressions as this may impede venous return.
• B. Compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-half to one third the diameter of the chest.
• C. The chest should be compressed with one hand and a compression to ventilation ratio of 30:2 should be delivered.
• D. A compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2 should be delivered without pauses in compressions to deliver ventilations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement regarding 2-rescuer child CPR is to compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-half to one third the diameter of the chest. This technique ensures effective chest compressions without causing excessive damage to the chest. Choice A is incorrect because allowing the chest to fully recoil between compressions is essential to facilitate optimal blood flow during CPR. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a compression to ventilation ratio of 30:2, which is not the recommended ratio for child CPR. Choice D is incorrect as a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2 is not standard practice for child CPR, and pauses in compressions are necessary to provide ventilations effectively.

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