Nursing Elites

1. When explaining a viral disease that begins with malaise and a highly pruritic rash starting on the abdomen, spreading to the face and proximal extremities, and potentially leading to severe complications, which childhood disease is a nurse discussing with members of a grammar school’s Parent-Teachers Association?

• A. Rubella
• B. Rubeola
• C. Chickenpox
• D. Scarlet fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Chickenpox (varicella). This viral disease typically starts with malaise and a highly pruritic rash that begins on the abdomen and then spreads to the face and proximal extremities. Chickenpox can result in serious complications such as pneumonia and encephalitis. Rubella (German measles) presents with a milder rash and is less pruritic than chickenpox. Rubeola (measles) is characterized by a rash that spreads from the head to the trunk. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria and is not a viral illness.

2. What factor predisposes the urinary tract to infection in children?

• A. increased fluid intake
• B. short urethra in young girls
• C. prostatic secretions in males
• D. frequent emptying of the bladder

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The short urethra in young girls predisposes them to urinary tract infections. In young girls, the proximity of the urethra to the anus and the shorter urethra compared to boys make it easier for bacteria to travel up the urinary tract, increasing the risk of infection. Increased fluid intake and frequent emptying of the bladder are actually helpful in preventing urinary tract infections by flushing out bacteria. Prostatic secretions in males are not a factor in predisposing the urinary tract to infection in children.

3. Based on developmental norms for a 5-year-old child, a healthcare professional decides to withhold a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) elixir and notify the healthcare provider. Below what apical pulse did the healthcare professional withhold the medication?

• A. 60 beats/min
• B. 70 beats/min
• C. 90 beats/min
• D. 100 beats/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a 5-year-old child, an apical pulse below 90 beats/min is an indicator to withhold digoxin. Digoxin is a medication that affects the heart, and in pediatric patients, monitoring the pulse rate is crucial due to the risk of bradycardia (slow heart rate) as a potential side effect. In this case, an apical pulse of 90 beats/min or lower indicates a heart rate that may be too slow for a child of this age, warranting the withholding of digoxin and prompt notification of the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are not within the critical range specified for withholding digoxin in a 5-year-old child and would not necessitate withholding the medication.

4. Why is the infant scheduled to receive the intramuscular polio vaccine instead of the oral vaccine, as asked by the parents?

• A. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular vaccine because it is safer.
• B. Both vaccines produce the same results and are equally safe, according to consensus.
• C. The intramuscular vaccine is preferred over the oral vaccine due to cost considerations, unless contraindicated.
• D. The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends the intramuscular vaccine unless the infant or a family member is immunocompromised.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular polio vaccine over the oral vaccine due to its superior safety profile. Intramuscular administration ensures better immunogenicity and protection against poliovirus. Choice B is incorrect as the intramuscular vaccine is preferred for safety reasons. Choice C is incorrect because the recommendation is based on safety, not cost. Choice D is incorrect as the CDC recommendation is not solely based on immunocompromised status but rather on the overall safety and efficacy of the vaccine.

5. A child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being discharged from the hospital. What is important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Monitor blood glucose levels once a day
• B. Follow a strict meal plan
• C. Administer insulin only when blood glucose is high
• D. Recognize signs of hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Recognizing signs of hypoglycemia is essential for managing type 1 diabetes mellitus. Hypoglycemia, which occurs when blood glucose levels drop too low, can be dangerous and requires immediate intervention to prevent severe complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels more frequently than once a day, following a strict meal plan, and administering insulin only when blood glucose is high are important aspects of diabetes management but recognizing signs of hypoglycemia is crucial as it enables prompt action to prevent adverse outcomes.

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