Nursing Elites

1. Why is the infant scheduled to receive the intramuscular polio vaccine instead of the oral vaccine, as asked by the parents?

• A. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular vaccine because it is safer.
• B. Both vaccines produce the same results and are equally safe, according to consensus.
• C. The intramuscular vaccine is preferred over the oral vaccine due to cost considerations, unless contraindicated.
• D. The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends the intramuscular vaccine unless the infant or a family member is immunocompromised.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular polio vaccine over the oral vaccine due to its superior safety profile. Intramuscular administration ensures better immunogenicity and protection against poliovirus. Choice B is incorrect as the intramuscular vaccine is preferred for safety reasons. Choice C is incorrect because the recommendation is based on safety, not cost. Choice D is incorrect as the CDC recommendation is not solely based on immunocompromised status but rather on the overall safety and efficacy of the vaccine.

2. A 5-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administering antibiotics
• B. Isolating the child
• C. Monitoring vital signs
• D. Administering fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a child admitted with bacterial meningitis is isolating the child. Isolation is crucial to prevent the spread of the highly contagious infection to other patients and healthcare workers. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important but isolating the child takes precedence to contain the spread of the infection. Monitoring vital signs (Choice C) and administering fluids (Choice D) are essential aspects of care but do not address the immediate need to prevent transmission of the infection.

3. Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defects, and mitral valve stenosis
• B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
• C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta
• D. Altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta are the cardiac defects associated with Tetralogy of Fallot. In Tetralogy of Fallot, these specific abnormalities contribute to the classic features of the condition. Choice A is incorrect as it includes mitral valve stenosis, which is not typically part of Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice B describes transposition of the great arteries, not Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D mentions an altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, which is not a defining characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot.

4. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?

• A. Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.
• B. The drug prevents your baby from requiring excessive sedation.
• C. Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.
• D. Your baby needs this medication to combat a potential respiratory tract infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Surfactant therapy is explained to parents as a treatment that enhances the lungs' ability to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide. This is essential for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) as it helps improve their respiratory function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because surfactant therapy primarily focuses on addressing lung function and is not related to sedation, apnea reduction, or fighting respiratory tract infections.

5. After eating, a child with a diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) should be placed in what position as recommended by the nurse?

• A. Supine
• B. Prone
• C. Semi-Fowler's
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the child in a semi-Fowler's position after eating is beneficial for reducing symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux. This position helps prevent gastric contents from flowing back into the esophagus. The supine position (choice A) may worsen reflux symptoms by allowing gravity to assist in reflux, leading to discomfort and regurgitation. Prone position (choice B) is not recommended after eating as it may cause discomfort and increase the risk of aspiration due to pressure on the stomach. Trendelenburg position (choice D), with the head lower than the rest of the body, is not indicated for managing GERD after eating and may not provide the desired benefits in this context.

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