HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI 2023
1. Why is the infant scheduled to receive the intramuscular polio vaccine instead of the oral vaccine, as asked by the parents?
- A. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular vaccine because it is safer.
- B. Both vaccines produce the same results and are equally safe, according to consensus.
- C. The intramuscular vaccine is preferred over the oral vaccine due to cost considerations, unless contraindicated.
- D. The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends the intramuscular vaccine unless the infant or a family member is immunocompromised.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular polio vaccine over the oral vaccine due to its superior safety profile. Intramuscular administration ensures better immunogenicity and protection against poliovirus. Choice B is incorrect as the intramuscular vaccine is preferred for safety reasons. Choice C is incorrect because the recommendation is based on safety, not cost. Choice D is incorrect as the CDC recommendation is not solely based on immunocompromised status but rather on the overall safety and efficacy of the vaccine.
2. The nurse is teaching a parent group about the reasons for adhering to the immunization schedule. What complication of mumps is important for adolescents to avoid?
- A. Sterility
- B. Hypopituitarism
- C. Decrease in libido
- D. Decrease in androgens
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sterility. Mumps can lead to serious complications such as sterility, especially in adolescent males. Vaccination is essential to prevent this potential outcome. Hypopituitarism (Choice B) is not a typical complication of mumps. Choices C and D, decrease in libido and decrease in androgens, are not directly associated with mumps complications, particularly in the context of adolescents.
3. A child with a cardiac malformation associated with left-to-right shunting is being cared for by a nurse. What does the nurse consider to be the major characteristic of this type of congenital disorder?
- A. Elevated hematocrit
- B. Severe growth retardation
- C. Clubbing of the fingers and toes
- D. Increased blood flow to the lungs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The major characteristic of a cardiac malformation associated with left-to-right shunting is increased blood flow to the lungs. This increased flow can lead to pulmonary hypertension and heart failure if left untreated. Elevated hematocrit (Choice A) is not a typical characteristic of this condition. Severe growth retardation (Choice B) is not directly associated with left-to-right shunting. Clubbing of the fingers and toes (Choice C) is more commonly seen in conditions involving chronic hypoxia.
4. After an infant has had corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS), what should the nurse teach a parent to do immediately after a feeding to limit vomiting?
- A. Rock the infant.
- B. Place the infant in an infant seat.
- C. Place the infant flat on the right side.
- D. Keep the infant awake with sensory stimulation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Placing the infant in an infant seat is essential after feeding to help keep the head elevated and reduce the risk of vomiting. This position helps prevent regurgitation of formula or milk. Rocking the infant (Choice A) is incorrect because it may exacerbate vomiting due to the movement. Placing the infant flat on the right side (Choice C) is incorrect as it does not promote proper digestion and can increase the risk of vomiting. Keeping the infant awake with sensory stimulation (Choice D) is incorrect as it does not directly address the physiological need to reduce vomiting after feeding.
5. When you attempt to assess a 22-year-old woman who has been sexually assaulted, and she orders you not to touch her, your most appropriate initial action should be to
- A. ask the patient to sign a release form
- B. ask a female EMT-B to attempt to assess the patient
- C. explain to the patient that she must be examined
- D. transport the patient without performing an assessment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of sexual assault, it is crucial to prioritize the patient's emotional and physical comfort. Asking a female EMT-B to attempt the assessment is the most appropriate initial action as it respects the patient's need for privacy and comfort. Asking the patient to sign a release form (Choice A) is not the immediate concern when the patient's well-being and comfort are at stake. Explaining to the patient that she must be examined (Choice C) disregards her autonomy and can worsen the trauma she is experiencing. Transporting the patient without performing an assessment (Choice D) neglects the necessary evaluation and potentially vital care that she may require.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access