Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a child with suspected pertussis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare professional likely to observe?

• A. Dry, hacking cough
• B. Inspiratory stridor
• C. Nasal congestion
• D. Severe coughing spells

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe coughing spells are a hallmark clinical manifestation of pertussis. Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is characterized by paroxysms of rapid, consecutive coughs followed by a distinctive 'whoop' sound as the patient gasps for air. This intense coughing can lead to vomiting, exhaustion, and sometimes a characteristic 'whoop' sound. Inspiratory stridor (Choice B) is more commonly associated with croup, not pertussis. Nasal congestion (Choice C) is not a typical feature of pertussis. While a cough is present in pertussis, the specific type of cough described in Choice A (dry, hacking cough) is not the predominant feature observed in pertussis.

2. Congenital heart defects have traditionally been divided into acyanotic or cyanotic defects. Based on the nurse’s knowledge of congenital heart defects, this system in clinical practice is

• A. helpful because it explains the hemodynamics involved
• B. helpful because children with cyanotic defects are easily identified
• C. problematic because cyanosis is rarely present in children
• D. problematic because children with acyanotic heart defects may develop cyanosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The classification system of congenital heart defects into acyanotic or cyanotic defects is problematic because children with acyanotic heart defects may develop cyanosis, complicating the differentiation. Cyanosis can occur in some acyanotic defects due to various reasons such as right-to-left shunting or decreased pulmonary blood flow, making the classification based solely on cyanosis misleading. Choice A is incorrect because while the classification may involve hemodynamics, the main issue lies in the potential for acyanotic defects to develop cyanosis. Choice B is incorrect as the ease of identifying children with cyanotic defects does not address the main problem with the classification system. Choice C is also incorrect as the presence of cyanosis is not the only factor determining the classification's validity.

3. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What would the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder?

• A. Shortened prothrombin time
• B. Increased fibrinogen level
• C. Positive fibrin split products
• D. Increased platelets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positive fibrin split products indicate disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a condition characterized by the widespread formation of blood clots throughout the body. In DIC, clotting factors are consumed, leading to increased fibrin split products. A shortened prothrombin time (Choice A) is not typically seen in DIC as it indicates faster blood clotting, which is not consistent with the pathophysiology of DIC. An increased fibrinogen level (Choice B) is also not a characteristic finding in DIC, as fibrinogen levels may be decreased due to consumption in the formation of clots. Increased platelets (Choice D) are not typically observed in DIC; instead, thrombocytopenia (decreased platelet count) is more common due to their consumption in clot formation.

4. The parents of a 6-month-old infant are concerned about the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk?

• A. Place the infant on their back to sleep
• B. Use a pacifier during sleep
• C. Have the infant sleep on their side
• D. Keep the infant's room cool

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation to reduce the risk of SIDS in infants is to place them on their back to sleep. This sleeping position helps prevent the occurrence of SIDS by maintaining an open airway and reducing the risk of suffocation. Using a pacifier during sleep has also shown some protective effect against SIDS, but it is not as effective as placing the infant on their back. Having the infant sleep on their side is not recommended as it can increase the risk of accidental suffocation. Keeping the infant's room cool does not directly reduce the risk of SIDS.

5. The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old boy who has sustained burn injuries. The nurse observes the burn developing a purplish color with discharge and a foul odor. The nurse suspects which infection?

• A. Burn wound cellulitis.
• B. Invasive burn cellulitis.
• C. Burn impetigo.
• D. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Invasive burn cellulitis is characterized by the burn developing a dark brown, black, or purplish color with discharge and a foul odor. This description aligns with the symptoms observed in the 15-year-old boy. Burn wound cellulitis (Choice A) typically presents with erythema, edema, warmth, and tenderness at the burn site, without the characteristic changes seen in this case. Burn impetigo (Choice C) is a superficial infection characterized by honey-colored crusts, not consistent with the purplish color and foul odor described. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (Choice D) is a condition caused by exotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus, leading to widespread desquamation of the skin, but it does not typically present with the specific findings mentioned in the scenario.

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