Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is 14 weeks of gestation. At which of the following locations should the healthcare professional place the Doppler device when assessing the fetal heart rate?

• A. Midline 2 to 3 cm (0.8 to 1.2 in) above the symphysis pubis
• B. Left Upper Abdomen
• C. Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
• D. Lateral at the Xiphoid Process

Correct answer: A

Rationale: At 14 weeks of gestation, the uterus is still relatively low in the abdomen. Placing the Doppler midline 2 to 3 cm above the symphysis pubis is appropriate for assessing the fetal heart rate. This location allows for better detection of the fetal heart tones as the uterus is at a lower position during this stage of pregnancy. Placing the Doppler on the left upper abdomen would not be ideal at 14 weeks gestation as the uterus is not yet at that level. Placing it two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus or lateral at the xiphoid process would also not be accurate for locating the fetal heart rate at this stage of gestation.

2. A newborn who was born post-term is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. A Rh-negative mother who has an Rh-positive infant
• B. A Rh-positive mother who has an Rh-negative infant
• C. A Rh-positive mother who has an Rh-positive infant
• D. A Rh-negative mother who has an Rh-negative infant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'A Rh-negative mother who has an Rh-positive infant.' In cases where the newborn is born post-term, the mismatched Rh factor between the mother (Rh-negative) and the infant (Rh-positive) can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This condition occurs when maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells, causing hemolysis. This can result in jaundice, anemia, and other serious complications for the infant. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the mismatched Rh factor scenario that poses a risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn.

3. A client at 34 weeks gestation comes to the birthing center complaining of vaginal bleeding that began one hour ago. The nurse's assessment reveals approximately 30ML of bright red vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate of 130 - 140 beats per minute, no contractions, and no complaints of pain. What is the most likely cause of this client's bleeding?

• A. Abruptio Placenta
• B. Placenta Previa
• C. Normal bloody show indicating induction of labor
• D. A ruptured blood vessel in the vaginal vault

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placenta previa, a condition where the placenta covers the cervix, can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. In this scenario, the absence of contractions and pain, along with the presence of significant bright red bleeding, is more indicative of placenta previa rather than abruptio placenta or a ruptured vessel. A normal bloody show typically occurs closer to the onset of labor and is not associated with the amount of bleeding described in the question.

4. A multiparous client at 36 hours postpartum reports increased bleeding and cramping. On examination, the nurse finds the uterine fundus 2 centimeters above the umbilicus. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the intravenous fluid to 150 ml/hr.
• B. Call the healthcare provider.
• C. Encourage the client to void.
• D. Administer ibuprofen 800 milligrams by mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to void is the priority action in this scenario. A distended bladder can prevent the uterus from contracting properly, leading to increased bleeding and a high uterine fundus. By encouraging the client to void, the nurse can help the uterus contract effectively, reducing bleeding. Increasing intravenous fluids or administering ibuprofen would not address the immediate concern of a distended bladder affecting uterine contraction. While it may be necessary to involve the healthcare provider, addressing the bladder distention promptly is crucial to prevent further complications.

5. A nurse is caring for an infant who has signs of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Provide a calm environment
• B. Monitor blood glucose levels every hour
• C. Initiate seizure precautions
• D. Place the infant on their back with legs extended

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Initiating seizure precautions is crucial when caring for an infant with neonatal abstinence syndrome due to the increased risk of seizures. Providing a calm environment (Choice A) is important to reduce stimulation as these infants may be irritable. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B) is not typically a priority in neonatal abstinence syndrome unless specific signs or symptoms suggest the need for this assessment. Placing the infant on their back with legs extended (Choice D) does not directly address the potential complications associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome, such as seizures.

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