Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is 14 weeks of gestation. At which of the following locations should the healthcare professional place the Doppler device when assessing the fetal heart rate?

• A. Midline 2 to 3 cm (0.8 to 1.2 in) above the symphysis pubis
• B. Left Upper Abdomen
• C. Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
• D. Lateral at the Xiphoid Process

Correct answer: A

Rationale: At 14 weeks of gestation, the uterus is still relatively low in the abdomen. Placing the Doppler midline 2 to 3 cm above the symphysis pubis is appropriate for assessing the fetal heart rate. This location allows for better detection of the fetal heart tones as the uterus is at a lower position during this stage of pregnancy. Placing the Doppler on the left upper abdomen would not be ideal at 14 weeks gestation as the uterus is not yet at that level. Placing it two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus or lateral at the xiphoid process would also not be accurate for locating the fetal heart rate at this stage of gestation.

2. What nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia?

• A. Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.
• B. Risk for altered gas exchange.
• C. Risk for deficient fluid volume, related to increased sodium retention secondary to the administration of magnesium sulfate.
• D. Risk for increased cardiac output, related to the use of antihypertensive drugs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a woman experiencing severe preeclampsia is 'Risk for injury to mother and fetus, related to central nervous system (CNS) irritability.' Severe preeclampsia poses a significant risk of injury to both the mother and the fetus due to complications such as seizures, stroke, and placental abruption. 'Risk for altered gas exchange' is not the priority diagnosis as pulmonary edema is more common in severe preeclampsia. 'Risk for deficient fluid volume' is incorrect as sodium retention in severe preeclampsia often leads to fluid overload. 'Risk for increased cardiac output' is also incorrect as antihypertensive drugs are used to reduce cardiac output in this condition.

3. A 17-year-old client gave birth 12 hours ago. She states that she doesn't know how to care for her baby. To promote parent-infant attachment behaviors, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Ask if she has help to care for the baby at home
• B. Provide a video on newborn safety and care
• C. Explore the basis of fears with the client
• D. Encourage rooming in while in the hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging rooming in while in the hospital is the most appropriate intervention to promote parent-infant attachment behaviors. Rooming in allows the mother to stay with her baby continuously, facilitating bonding and providing the opportunity for the mother to learn how to care for her baby with the nurse's support. Asking if she has help at home (Choice A) does not directly address promoting attachment behaviors. Providing a video on newborn safety and care (Choice B) may offer information but does not actively facilitate immediate bonding. Exploring the basis of fears (Choice C) is important but may not directly address promoting attachment behaviors as effectively as encouraging rooming in.

4. Which synthetic hormone is used to prevent miscarriages and can cause masculinization of the fetus?

• A. Testosterone
• B. Estrogen
• C. Progestin
• D. Oxytocin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Progestin is the synthetic hormone used to prevent miscarriages. While it is beneficial in maintaining pregnancy, in some cases, it can lead to masculinization of the fetus. Testosterone (Choice A) and estrogen (Choice B) are not typically used to prevent miscarriages and do not cause masculinization of the fetus in this context. Oxytocin (Choice D) is a hormone involved in labor and breastfeeding, but it is not used to prevent miscarriages nor does it cause masculinization of the fetus.

5. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Assessment for congenital anomalies
• B. Recalculation of gestational age
• C. Evaluation of fetal growth
• D. Determination of fetal presentation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.

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