Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is 14 weeks of gestation. At which of the following locations should the healthcare professional place the Doppler device when assessing the fetal heart rate?

• A. Midline 2 to 3 cm (0.8 to 1.2 in) above the symphysis pubis
• B. Left Upper Abdomen
• C. Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
• D. Lateral at the Xiphoid Process

Correct answer: A

Rationale: At 14 weeks of gestation, the uterus is still relatively low in the abdomen. Placing the Doppler midline 2 to 3 cm above the symphysis pubis is appropriate for assessing the fetal heart rate. This location allows for better detection of the fetal heart tones as the uterus is at a lower position during this stage of pregnancy. Placing the Doppler on the left upper abdomen would not be ideal at 14 weeks gestation as the uterus is not yet at that level. Placing it two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus or lateral at the xiphoid process would also not be accurate for locating the fetal heart rate at this stage of gestation.

2. Examination reveals that the laboring client's cervix is dilated to 2 centimeters, 70% effaced with the presenting part at -2 station. The client tells the nurse, 'I need my epidural now, this hurts.' The nurse's response to the client is based on which information?

• A. The client will need to be catheterized before the epidural can be administered.
• B. Administering an epidural at this point would slow down the labor process.
• C. The client should be dilated to at least 8 centimeters before receiving an epidural.
• D. The baby needs to be at a zero station before an epidural can be administered.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering an epidural too early in labor, especially at 2 cm dilation, can slow down the progress of labor. It is usually recommended to wait until labor is more established. Choice A is incorrect because catheterization is not a prerequisite for epidural administration. Choice C is incorrect as waiting until 8 cm dilation is not a standard requirement for epidural administration. Choice D is incorrect because the baby's station being at zero is not a strict criterion for epidural administration.

3. Following a traumatic delivery, an infant receives an initial Apgar score of 3. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Page the pediatrician STAT
• B. Continue resuscitative efforts
• C. Repeat the Apgar assessment in 5 minutes
• D. Inform the parents of the infant's condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where an infant receives a low Apgar score of 3 following a traumatic delivery, the most crucial intervention for the nurse to implement is to continue resuscitative efforts. A low Apgar score indicates that the newborn is in distress and requires immediate medical attention to support breathing, heart rate, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. Continuing resuscitative efforts is essential to provide life-saving interventions promptly. Paging the pediatrician may cause a delay in crucial interventions, repeating the Apgar assessment in 5 minutes is not appropriate as immediate action is needed to stabilize the infant, and informing parents should not take precedence over providing immediate medical care to the newborn.

4. Four clients at full term present to the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should a nurse assess first?

• A. Multipara with contractions occurring every three minutes
• B. Multipara scheduled for non-stress test and biophysical profile
• C. Primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes
• D. Primipara with burning on urination and urinary frequency

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes requires immediate assessment as she may be in active labor or at risk of infection. The vaginal show and leaking membranes suggest potential rupture of membranes and the start of labor. Assessing her first ensures prompt management and monitoring. The other options, while important, do not indicate immediate or emergent needs. Contractions every three minutes in a multipara can be managed with ongoing monitoring; non-stress tests and biophysical profiles can be scheduled and are not acute needs. Burning on urination and urinary frequency in a primipara may indicate a urinary tract infection, which is important but not as urgent as assessing for active labor or rupture of membranes.

5. Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome produce:

• A. less estrogen than normal males.
• B. less testosterone than normal males.
• C. less adenine than normal males.
• D. less thymine than normal males.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY), leading to reduced production of testosterone, the primary male sex hormone. This deficiency can result in various physical and developmental characteristics associated with the syndrome. Estrogen levels may actually be relatively elevated due to the imbalance between testosterone and estrogen. Choices C and D are incorrect as adenine and thymine are nucleotide bases found in DNA and are not related to hormone production.

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