Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is 14 weeks of gestation. At which of the following locations should the healthcare professional place the Doppler device when assessing the fetal heart rate?

• A. Midline 2 to 3 cm (0.8 to 1.2 in) above the symphysis pubis
• B. Left Upper Abdomen
• C. Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
• D. Lateral at the Xiphoid Process

Correct answer: A

Rationale: At 14 weeks of gestation, the uterus is still relatively low in the abdomen. Placing the Doppler midline 2 to 3 cm above the symphysis pubis is appropriate for assessing the fetal heart rate. This location allows for better detection of the fetal heart tones as the uterus is at a lower position during this stage of pregnancy. Placing the Doppler on the left upper abdomen would not be ideal at 14 weeks gestation as the uterus is not yet at that level. Placing it two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus or lateral at the xiphoid process would also not be accurate for locating the fetal heart rate at this stage of gestation.

2. At 31 weeks gestation, a client with a fundal height measurement of 25 cm is scheduled for a series of ultrasounds to be performed every two weeks. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Assessment for congenital anomalies
• B. Recalculation of gestational age
• C. Evaluation of fetal growth
• D. Determination of fetal presentation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Evaluation of fetal growth.' A fundal height measurement smaller than expected may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), requiring serial ultrasounds to monitor fetal growth. Assessing for congenital anomalies (choice A) is usually done through detailed anatomy scans earlier in pregnancy. Recalculating gestational age (choice B) is typically unnecessary at this stage unless there are concerns about accuracy. Determining fetal presentation (choice D) is usually done closer to term to plan for the mode of delivery.

3. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and not up-to-date on current immunizations should anticipate receiving which of the following immunizations following birth?

• A. Pneumococcal
• B. Hepatitis
• C. Human papillomavirus
• D. Rubella

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rubella. Rubella vaccine is recommended postpartum to prevent congenital rubella syndrome in future pregnancies. Pneumococcal and Hepatitis vaccines are not routinely given postpartum. Human papillomavirus vaccine is not typically administered immediately after birth but rather at a later age to prevent HPV infections.

4. Is Duchenne muscular dystrophy a sex-linked abnormality?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Sometimes
• D. Always

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, primarily affecting males. This is due to the inheritance of the mutated gene on the X chromosome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is specifically classified as a sex-linked disorder affecting males due to the inheritance pattern.

5. On the first postpartum day, the nurse examines the breasts of a new mother. Which condition is the nurse most likely to find?

• A. Firm, larger, and very tender to the touch
• B. Slightly firm with an immediate let-down response
• C. Soft with no change from before delivery
• D. Filling and secreting colostrum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: On the first postpartum day, the nurse is most likely to find the breasts filling and secreting colostrum. Colostrum secretion is common as the body prepares for breastfeeding in the initial days after delivery. Choice A is incorrect as breasts are not typically very tender immediately postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as an immediate let-down response is more related to lactation rather than the first postpartum day. Choice C is incorrect as the breasts typically undergo changes, such as filling with colostrum, after delivery.

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