HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is 14 weeks of gestation. At which of the following locations should the healthcare professional place the Doppler device when assessing the fetal heart rate?
- A. Midline 2 to 3 cm (0.8 to 1.2 in) above the symphysis pubis
- B. Left Upper Abdomen
- C. Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
- D. Lateral at the Xiphoid Process
Correct answer: A
Rationale: At 14 weeks of gestation, the uterus is still relatively low in the abdomen. Placing the Doppler midline 2 to 3 cm above the symphysis pubis is appropriate for assessing the fetal heart rate. This location allows for better detection of the fetal heart tones as the uterus is at a lower position during this stage of pregnancy. Placing the Doppler on the left upper abdomen would not be ideal at 14 weeks gestation as the uterus is not yet at that level. Placing it two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus or lateral at the xiphoid process would also not be accurate for locating the fetal heart rate at this stage of gestation.
2. A woman gave birth to a 7-pound, 6-ounce infant girl 1 hour ago. The birth was vaginal and the estimated blood loss (EBL) was 1500 ml. When evaluating the woman’s vital signs, which finding would be of greatest concern to the nurse?
- A. Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120 beats per minute (bpm), respirations 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg.
- B. Temperature 37.4°C, heart rate 88 bpm, respirations 36 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 126/68 mm Hg.
- C. Temperature 38°C, heart rate 80 bpm, respirations 16 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg.
- D. Temperature 36.8°C, heart rate 60 bpm, respirations 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An estimated blood loss (EBL) of 1500 ml following a vaginal birth is significant and can lead to hypovolemia. The vital signs provided in option A (Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120 bpm, respirations 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg) indicate tachycardia and hypotension, which are concerning signs of hypovolemia due to excessive blood loss. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to decreased blood volume, and hypotension indicates inadequate perfusion. Options B, C, and D do not exhibit the same level of concern for hypovolemia. Option B shows tachypnea, which can be a result of pain or anxiety postpartum. Option C and D have vital signs within normal limits, which are not indicative of the body's response to significant blood loss.
3. A healthcare provider is teaching a prenatal class about immunizations that newborns receive following birth. Which of the following immunizations should the provider include in the teaching?
- A. Hepatitis B
- B. Rotavirus
- C. Pneumococcal
- D. Varicella
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Hepatitis B. Newborns receive the Hepatitis B vaccine shortly after birth to provide protection against the virus. Rotavirus, Pneumococcal, and Varicella vaccines are typically administered at later stages of infancy or childhood, not immediately after birth. Rotavirus vaccine helps prevent severe diarrhea, Pneumococcal vaccine protects against infections like pneumonia and meningitis, and Varicella vaccine prevents chickenpox. However, these vaccines are not part of the routine immunizations given to newborns immediately after birth.
4. Daisy was always unusually short for her age. She was unable to conceive a child after marriage, and upon visiting a doctor, she was prescribed estrogen replacement therapy. Daisy is most likely suffering from:
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
- B. Cystic fibrosis.
- C. Turner syndrome.
- D. Huntington’s disease (HD).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Daisy's symptoms of short stature and infertility, along with the prescription of estrogen replacement therapy, are indicative of Turner syndrome. Turner syndrome is a genetic condition in which a female is partially or completely missing one X chromosome. This results in short stature, infertility, and other physical characteristics. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder caused by a mutation in the gene responsible for the breakdown of the amino acid phenylalanine. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder affecting the respiratory and digestive systems. Huntington's disease (HD) is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects muscle coordination and leads to cognitive decline.
5. Which of the following most accurately describes the function of genes?
- A. They regulate the development of traits.
- B. They prevent foreign particles from entering the body.
- C. They work together with lutein to influence development.
- D. They transfer oxygen from the bloodstream to other parts of the body.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'They regulate the development of traits.' Genes play a crucial role in regulating the development of traits by encoding proteins that control various bodily functions and characteristics. This process involves gene expression and the production of proteins that ultimately determine an individual's traits. Choice B is incorrect because genes do not have a direct role in preventing foreign particles from entering the body; this function is primarily carried out by the immune system. Choice C is incorrect as genes do not specifically work with lutein to influence development; genes operate independently to regulate trait expression. Choice D is incorrect as genes are not responsible for transferring oxygen in the bloodstream; this function is carried out by red blood cells and hemoglobin.
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