monozygotic mz twins share percent of their genes
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Maternity HESI Test Bank

1. Monozygotic (MZ) twins share _________ percent of their genes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monozygotic (MZ) twins share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two, resulting in identical genetic material for both twins. Choice B (75%) is incorrect as it implies a partial genetic similarity, which is not the case for MZ twins. Choice C (50%) is incorrect as it suggests half of the genes are shared, which is applicable to dizygotic (DZ) twins, not MZ. Choice D (25%) is incorrect as it indicates minimal genetic sharing, which is not true for MZ twins.

2. A woman with gestational diabetes has had little or no experience reading and interpreting glucose levels. The client shows the nurse her readings for the past few days. Which reading signals the nurse that the client may require an adjustment of insulin or carbohydrates?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: 50 mg/dl after waking from a nap is too low. During hours of sleep, glucose levels should not be less than 60 mg/dl. Snacks before sleeping can be helpful. The premeal acceptable range is 60 to 99 mg/dl. The readings 1 hour after a meal should be less than 129 mg/dl. Two hours after eating, the readings should be less than 120 mg/dl.

3. A multiparous woman has been in labor for 8 hours. Her membranes have just ruptured. What is the nurse’s highest priority in this situation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) and pattern (Choice D). When a multiparous woman's membranes rupture after 8 hours of labor, the nurse's priority is to assess the fetal well-being. Rupture of membranes can lead to potential complications such as umbilical cord prolapse. Monitoring the fetal heart rate and pattern immediately after the rupture of membranes is crucial to ensure the fetus is not in distress. This assessment helps in determining the need for immediate interventions to safeguard the fetus. Documenting the characteristics of the fluid (Choice C) may be necessary but is of lower priority compared to assessing fetal well-being. While preparing the woman for imminent birth (Choice A) is important, assessing the fetal heart rate takes precedence to ensure the fetus is not compromised. Notifying the woman's primary healthcare provider (Choice B) is also important but not the highest priority at this moment.

4. A client tells the nurse that she thinks she's pregnant. Which signs or symptoms provide the best indication that the client is pregnant?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hegar's sign, which is a softening of the lower uterine segment, is considered a probable sign of pregnancy as it indicates changes in the cervix and uterus that occur during pregnancy. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is a common early sign of pregnancy but can also be due to other factors. Morning sickness, nausea and vomiting, can be a sign of early pregnancy but is not as specific as Hegar's sign. Breast tenderness is a common symptom in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes, but it is not as definitive as Hegar's sign in indicating pregnancy.

5. The nurse is caring for a multiparous client who is 8 centimeters dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetal head is at 0 station. The client is shivering and states extreme discomfort with the urge to bear down. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Repositioning the client to a side-lying position is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. This position can help relieve pressure on the cervix and reduce the urge to push prematurely, allowing the cervix to continue dilating. Administering IV pain medication may not address the underlying cause of the discomfort, and pushing prematurely can lead to cervical trauma. Performing a vaginal exam is not necessary at this point as the client is already 8 centimeters dilated, and the fetal head is at 0 station.

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