which of the following is most likely to develop sickle cell anemia
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HESI Focus on Maternity Exam

1. Which of the following is most likely to develop sickle cell anemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sickle cell anemia is most commonly found in individuals of African American descent. This is because sickle cell trait provides some protection against malaria, and historically, regions where malaria is or was prevalent have higher rates of sickle cell anemia. Therefore, individuals with African ancestry are at a higher risk of developing sickle cell anemia compared to other populations. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to develop sickle cell anemia due to lower genetic prevalence in their respective populations.

2. Which drug was marketed in the 1960s to pregnant women and caused birth defects such as missing or stunted limbs in infants?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thalidomide is the correct answer. Thalidomide was a drug marketed in the 1960s to pregnant women as a sedative and anti-nausea medication but tragically led to severe birth defects, including limb deformities, when taken during pregnancy. Progestin (Choice A) and Estrogen (Choice B) are hormones that are not associated with causing birth defects like Thalidomide. Oxytocin (Choice D) is a hormone that plays a role in labor and breastfeeding and is not known to cause birth defects like Thalidomide.

3. A client has experienced a fetal demise following a vaginal delivery at term. What should the nurse advise the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a fetal demise, allowing the parents to bathe and dress their baby can offer them a sense of closure and help them in their grieving process. This act can provide a tangible way for the parents to bond with their baby and create lasting memories. Option B is incorrect because each individual may have different emotional needs and holding the baby may not be appropriate or helpful for everyone. Option C, while well-intentioned, may not be suitable for all parents as naming the baby could be emotionally challenging. Option D is insensitive as it overlooks the grieving process of losing a baby by suggesting a replacement.

4. _____ is a life-threatening disease, characterized by high blood pressure that may afflict women late in the second or early in the third trimester.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preeclampsia is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby. Rubella (choice A) is a viral infection that can harm the developing fetus but is not directly related to high blood pressure in pregnancy. Syphilis (choice B) is a sexually transmitted infection that can affect pregnancy but does not specifically cause high blood pressure. Phenylketonuria (choice D) is a genetic disorder that affects metabolism and is not associated with high blood pressure in pregnancy.

5. A nurse is teaching about clomiphene citrate to a client who is experiencing infertility. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Breast Tenderness.' Clomiphene citrate is known to cause breast tenderness as a common side effect due to its hormonal effects on the body. Tinnitus (choice A), which is a ringing in the ears, is not typically associated with clomiphene citrate. Urinary frequency (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of this medication. Chills (choice D) are also not commonly linked to clomiphene citrate use.

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