HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. Which of the following is most likely to develop sickle cell anemia?
- A. European American
- B. Native American
- C. African American
- D. Asian American
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sickle cell anemia is most commonly found in individuals of African American descent. This is because sickle cell trait provides some protection against malaria, and historically, regions where malaria is or was prevalent have higher rates of sickle cell anemia. Therefore, individuals with African ancestry are at a higher risk of developing sickle cell anemia compared to other populations. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to develop sickle cell anemia due to lower genetic prevalence in their respective populations.
2. Four clients at full term present to the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should a nurse assess first?
- A. Multipara with contractions occurring every three minutes
- B. Multipara scheduled for non-stress test and biophysical profile
- C. Primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes
- D. Primipara with burning on urination and urinary frequency
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes requires immediate assessment as she may be in active labor or at risk of infection. The vaginal show and leaking membranes suggest potential rupture of membranes and the start of labor. Assessing her first ensures prompt management and monitoring. The other options, while important, do not indicate immediate or emergent needs. Contractions every three minutes in a multipara can be managed with ongoing monitoring; non-stress tests and biophysical profiles can be scheduled and are not acute needs. Burning on urination and urinary frequency in a primipara may indicate a urinary tract infection, which is important but not as urgent as assessing for active labor or rupture of membranes.
3. A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Thick, White Vaginal Discharge
- B. Urinary Frequency
- C. Vulvar Lesions
- D. Malodorous Discharge
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.
4. A woman has experienced iron deficiency anemia during her pregnancy. She had been taking iron for 3 months before the birth. The client gave birth by cesarean 2 days earlier and has been having problems with constipation. After assisting her back to bed from the bathroom, the nurse notes that the woman’s stools are dark (greenish-black). What should the nurse’s initial action be?
- A. Perform a guaiac test and record the results.
- B. Recognize the finding as abnormal and report it to the primary health care provider.
- C. Recognize the finding as a normal result of iron therapy.
- D. Check the woman’s next stool to validate the observation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should recognize that dark stools are a common side effect in clients who are taking iron replacement therapy. Dark stools are a known, expected result of iron supplementation and are not indicative of a complication unless other symptoms of GI bleeding are present. A guaiac test would be necessary if there were concerns about gastrointestinal bleeding. Recognizing dark stools as a consequence of iron therapy is an essential nursing assessment skill and does not require immediate reporting. Checking the next stool to confirm the observation is unnecessary as the presence of dark stools in this context is already an expected outcome of iron supplementation.
5. Is color blindness a sex-linked abnormality?
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Sometimes
- D. Always
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Color blindness is indeed a sex-linked abnormality as it is often associated with genes on the X chromosome. Since males have only one X chromosome, they are more likely to inherit color blindness if the gene is present. This makes color blindness more common in males. Choice B (FALSE) is incorrect because color blindness is linked to the X chromosome. Choices C (Sometimes) and D (Always) are incorrect as color blindness is consistently tied to the X chromosome.
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