Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

• A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
• B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
• C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper state of unconsciousness than what is described in the scenario. Choice C is inaccurate as the client is not merely sleeping but non-responsive. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than what is presented in the scenario.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What information should the LPN include when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Avoid exposure to sunlight.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase fluid intake while on this medication.
• D. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider immediately.' Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. It can lower the immune system's ability to fight infections, making it crucial for clients to promptly report any signs of infection to prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding sunlight, taking the medication with food, and increasing fluid intake are not specific to methotrexate therapy and are not primary concerns associated with this medication.

3. A nurse is called away for an emergency while conversing with a client who is concerned about his medical diagnosis. The nurse returns to the client promptly, as promised. Which of the following ethical principles is the nurse demonstrating?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Beneficence
• D. Justice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fidelity. Fidelity in nursing ethics involves keeping promises and being faithful to commitments, demonstrating reliability and trustworthiness. In this scenario, the nurse is exemplifying fidelity by returning promptly to the client as promised. Choice B, Autonomy, refers to respecting a patient's right to make their own decisions, not relevant in this situation. Choice C, Beneficence, involves the duty to act in the best interest of the patient, which is not the primary focus here. Choice D, Justice, pertains to fairness and equity in the distribution of healthcare resources, not applicable to the nurse's actions in this case.

4. A nurse in a primary care clinic is assessing a client who has a history of herpes zoster. Which of the following findings suggests that the client has postherpetic neuralgia?

• A. Linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder.
• B. Purulent drainage from both eyes.
• C. Decreased white blood cell count.
• D. Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash. Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of herpes zoster characterized by persistent pain that continues even after the rash has resolved. This pain can be severe and debilitating, affecting the quality of life of the individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder would suggest an active herpes zoster outbreak, purulent drainage from both eyes would indicate an eye infection unrelated to postherpetic neuralgia, and a decreased white blood cell count is not typically associated with postherpetic neuralgia.

5. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

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