Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of asthma presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing and wheezing. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator
• B. Obtain a peak flow reading
• C. Provide supplemental oxygen
• D. Assess the client's respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a history of asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and wheezing, the priority nursing action is to administer a bronchodilator. This intervention helps relieve bronchospasm and improve the client's breathing. Obtaining a peak flow reading can provide additional information but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Providing supplemental oxygen may be needed but addressing the bronchospasm with a bronchodilator takes precedence. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is important but not as urgent as administering a bronchodilator to address the breathing difficulty.

2. During the initial physical assessment of a newly admitted client with a pressure ulcer, an LPN observes that the client's skin is dry and scaly. The nurse applies emollients and reinforces the dressing on the pressure ulcer. Legally, were the nurse's actions adequate?

• A. The nurse should have also initiated a plan to increase activity.
• B. The nurse provided supportive nursing care for the well-being of the client.
• C. Debridement of the pressure ulcer should have been performed before applying the dressing.
• D. Treatment should not have been initiated until the healthcare provider's prescriptions were received.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Providing supportive nursing care, such as applying emollients and reinforcing the dressing on the pressure ulcer, meets the immediate needs of the client and is in line with legal and professional standards. Option A is incorrect because increasing activity may not be directly related to the immediate skin care needs of the client. Option C is incorrect as debridement might not be immediately necessary based on the initial assessment. Option D is incorrect as nurses are often authorized to initiate treatments within their scope of practice without waiting for healthcare provider prescriptions, especially for routine care like skin moisturization and dressing reinforcement.

3. When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?

• A. SBAR
• B. SOAP
• C. PIE
• D. DAR

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.

4. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next morning.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to give the missed dose at 1300 and adjust the schedule to administer daily at 1300. This approach ensures that the client receives the correct total daily dose of levofloxacin. Choice A is incorrect because contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form would not address the immediate need to administer the missed dose. Choice B is incorrect as administering the missed dose at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next morning would result in a missed dose for that day. Choice C is not the best course of action as notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report should come after addressing the immediate need to administer the missed dose and adjusting the schedule for future doses.

5. During an initial history and physical assessment of a 3-month-old brought into the clinic for spitting up and excessive gas, what would the nurse expect to find?

• A. Increased temperature and lethargy
• B. Restlessness and increased mucus production
• C. Increased sleeping and listlessness
• D. Diarrhea and poor skin turgor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and increased mucus production are common signs of gastrointestinal issues or reflux in infants, which could explain the symptoms of spitting up and excessive gas. Increased temperature and lethargy (Choice A) are more indicative of an infection rather than gastrointestinal issues. Increased sleeping and listlessness (Choice C) are not typical signs associated with the symptoms described. Diarrhea and poor skin turgor (Choice D) are not directly related to the symptoms of spitting up and gas in this scenario.

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