HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. The healthcare provider is providing teaching to an immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity about diet. Which diet will the healthcare provider recommend?
- A. High protein, high calorie
- B. High carbohydrate, low fat
- C. High vitamin A, high vitamin E
- D. Fluid restricted, bland
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: High protein, high calorie. An immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity requires a diet high in protein and calories to repair injured tissue and rebuild depleted protein stores. This helps in promoting wound healing and preventing further breakdown of the skin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while vitamins and minerals are essential for overall health, in this case, the priority is on providing sufficient protein and calories to support healing and recovery in an immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity.
2. A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following statements should the charge nurse identify as an indication that the newly licensed nurse understands the teaching?
- A. I should obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial.
- B. MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin, so another antimicrobial will be prescribed.
- C. I will protect others from exposure when I transport the client outside the room.
- D. To decrease resistance, antimicrobial therapy is discontinued when the client is no longer febrile.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Protecting others from exposure when transporting a client with MRSA is crucial in preventing the spread of infection. This statement demonstrates understanding of infection control measures. Stating that MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin (choice B) is incorrect; vancomycin is often effective against MRSA. Obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial (choice A) is unnecessary and not indicated. Discontinuing antimicrobial therapy when the client is no longer febrile (choice D) is incorrect because antimicrobial therapy should be completed as prescribed to prevent the development of resistant strains.
3. A client receives the influenza vaccine in a clinic. Within 15 minutes after the immunization, the client complains of itchy and watery eyes, increased anxiety, and difficulty breathing. What should be the first action in the sequence of care for this client?
- A. Maintain the airway
- B. Administer epinephrine 1:1000 as ordered
- C. Monitor for hypotension with shock
- D. Administer diphenhydramine as ordered
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction, a severe allergic response. The priority action in an anaphylactic reaction is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine helps counteract the severe allergic response, improves breathing difficulties, and maintains airway and circulation. Administering epinephrine takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition. Options A, C, and D may be necessary in the management of anaphylaxis, but the immediate priority is to administer epinephrine to address the life-threatening symptoms.
4. A client is admitted to the hospital in the terminal stage of cancer. The nurse enters the client’s room to administer medications and finds the client crying. The appropriate nursing action is to:
- A. Sit and hold the client’s hand
- B. Ask why the client is crying
- C. Leave the room to give the client privacy
- D. Administer the medications and leave
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In end-of-life care, providing comfort and emotional support is essential. Sitting with the client, holding their hand, and offering a compassionate presence can help the client feel supported during a difficult time. Asking why the client is crying may not always be necessary as the focus should be on providing comfort rather than probing for information. Leaving the room to provide privacy or just administering medications and leaving may neglect the client's emotional needs and miss an opportunity to provide holistic care.
5. A client is being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Blood glucose of 350 mg/dL
- B. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
- C. Arterial pH of 7.20
- D. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the most concerning laboratory value is an arterial pH of 7.20. An arterial pH of 7.20 indicates severe acidosis, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention. This pH level reflects a significant imbalance in the body's acid-base status, potentially leading to serious complications. High blood glucose levels (choice A) are expected in DKA but do not directly indicate the severity of acidosis. A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L (choice B) is low but not as immediately critical as a pH of 7.20. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L (choice D) is elevated, which can occur in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but it is not the most concerning value in this scenario.
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