HESI LPN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions
1. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Urine Ketones
- B. Rapid plasma reagin
- C. Prothrombin time
- D. Urine culture
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Urine ketones should be anticipated as a laboratory test for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum because it helps assess the severity of dehydration and malnutrition, which are common complications of this condition. Choice B, rapid plasma reagin, is a test for syphilis and is not relevant to hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, prothrombin time, is a measure of blood clotting function and is not typically indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice D, urine culture, is used to identify bacteria in the urine and is not directly related to assessing dehydration and malnutrition in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum.
2. Thalidomide was marketed in the 1960s as a treatment for:
- A. insomnia and nausea.
- B. infertility and impotence.
- C. Down syndrome.
- D. Turner syndrome.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Thalidomide was initially marketed as a treatment for insomnia and nausea, particularly in pregnant women. However, it was later found to cause severe birth defects, leading to significant consequences. Choice B, infertility and impotence, is incorrect as thalidomide was not marketed for these conditions. Choices C and D, Down syndrome and Turner syndrome, are genetic conditions and not conditions for which thalidomide was intended as a treatment.
3. The client who is 40 weeks gestation seems upset and tells the nurse that the physician told her she needs to have a nonstress test. The client asks why she needs the test. The nurse’s best response would be:
- A. This is a test to see if your stress level is affecting your baby’s growth and well-being.
- B. This is a test to see if your baby will be able to withstand the stress of labor.
- C. This is a test to assess your baby’s well-being now that you are due to deliver soon.
- D. This is a test to let us know if your baby needs to be delivered to avoid a bad outcome.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C because the nonstress test is specifically used to assess the baby's well-being close to the due date. It helps determine if the baby is receiving enough oxygen and nutrients in the womb. Choice A is incorrect as the test does not assess the mother's stress level but focuses on fetal well-being. Choice B is incorrect as the test does not predict the baby's ability to withstand labor. Choice D is incorrect because the test does not solely indicate if the baby needs to be delivered to avoid a bad outcome; rather, it assesses the current well-being of the baby.
4. A woman has experienced iron deficiency anemia during her pregnancy. She had been taking iron for 3 months before the birth. The client gave birth by cesarean 2 days earlier and has been having problems with constipation. After assisting her back to bed from the bathroom, the nurse notes that the woman’s stools are dark (greenish-black). What should the nurse’s initial action be?
- A. Perform a guaiac test and record the results.
- B. Recognize the finding as abnormal and report it to the primary health care provider.
- C. Recognize the finding as a normal result of iron therapy.
- D. Check the woman’s next stool to validate the observation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should recognize that dark stools are a common side effect in clients who are taking iron replacement therapy. Dark stools are a known, expected result of iron supplementation and are not indicative of a complication unless other symptoms of GI bleeding are present. A guaiac test would be necessary if there were concerns about gastrointestinal bleeding. Recognizing dark stools as a consequence of iron therapy is an essential nursing assessment skill and does not require immediate reporting. Checking the next stool to confirm the observation is unnecessary as the presence of dark stools in this context is already an expected outcome of iron supplementation.
5. A client at 27 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urine protein concentration of 200 mg/24 hr.
- B. Creatinine level of 0.8 mg/dL
- C. Hemoglobin level of 14.8 g/dL
- D. Platelet count of 60,000/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A platelet count of 60,000/mm3 is significantly low and can indicate HELLP syndrome, a severe complication of preeclampsia that involves hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. HELLP syndrome requires prompt medical intervention to prevent serious maternal and fetal complications. The other findings listed are within normal limits or not directly related to the severe condition associated with HELLP syndrome.
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