a nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate
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HESI LPN

HESI Maternity 55 Questions

1. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urine ketones should be anticipated as a laboratory test for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum because it helps assess the severity of dehydration and malnutrition, which are common complications of this condition. Choice B, rapid plasma reagin, is a test for syphilis and is not relevant to hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, prothrombin time, is a measure of blood clotting function and is not typically indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice D, urine culture, is used to identify bacteria in the urine and is not directly related to assessing dehydration and malnutrition in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum.

2. A newborn is 24 hours old, and a healthcare provider is caring for them. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: WBC count 32,000/mm3. A WBC count of 32,000/mm3 is significantly elevated in a newborn and could indicate an infection, which needs immediate attention and intervention. High white blood cell counts in newborns can be concerning as they may suggest an ongoing infection or other underlying issues that require prompt medical evaluation and treatment. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges for a newborn and would not typically warrant immediate reporting to the provider. Hgb levels of 20 g/dL (Choice A) are high for newborns, but this is not as concerning as a significantly elevated WBC count. Bilirubin levels of 2 mg/dL (Choice B) are within normal limits for a newborn and do not indicate immediate issues. Platelet count of 200,000/mm3 (Choice C) is also within the normal range for a newborn and would not require immediate reporting.

3. _________ is self-propulsion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Motility.' Motility refers to the ability of cells or organisms to move by themselves, often through the use of specialized structures like flagella or cilia. Mitosis (Choice A) and Meiosis (Choice B) are processes related to cell division and genetic recombination, respectively, not self-propulsion. Mutation (Choice D) refers to changes in the DNA sequence and is not related to self-propulsion.

4. What causes cystic fibrosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder caused by inheriting two copies of a recessive gene, one from each parent. This means that both parents must carry at least one copy of the faulty gene for a child to inherit the condition. Choice A is incorrect because cystic fibrosis is not linked to the sex chromosomes. Choice B is incorrect as cystic fibrosis is not caused by an abnormality in the 21st pair of chromosomes but by a specific gene mutation. Choice D is also incorrect as cystic fibrosis is not related to the Y chromosome, which is specific to males.

5. When obtaining a health history from a client, a nurse in a woman’s health clinic should identify which of the following findings as increasing the client’s risk for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlamydia infection is a significant risk factor for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is often caused by untreated sexually transmitted infections (STIs) like Chlamydia and Gonorrhea that ascend from the vagina to the upper reproductive organs. Recurrent cystitis (choice A) is more related to urinary tract infections, frequent alcohol use (choice B) is not directly linked to PID, and the use of oral contraceptives (choice C) does not increase the risk of developing PID.

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