Nursing Elites

1. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate 14/min
• C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
• D. 2+ deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

2. What maternal factor should the nurse identify as having the greatest impact on the development of spina bifida occulta in a newborn?

• A. Short interval between pregnancies
• B. Folic acid deficiency
• C. Preeclampsia
• D. Tobacco use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy is a well-known risk factor for neural tube defects, including spina bifida occulta, making supplementation critical in prenatal care. Folic acid plays a crucial role in neural tube formation during early pregnancy. Short intervals between pregnancies do not directly impact the development of spina bifida occulta. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy and is not directly linked to spina bifida occulta. While tobacco use during pregnancy has various adverse effects, it is not the primary factor influencing the development of spina bifida occulta in newborns.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is pregnant. The healthcare provider should expect which of the following laboratory values to increase?

• A. RBC count
• B. Bilirubin
• C. Fasting blood glucose
• D. BUN

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, the body increases the production of red blood cells (RBCs) to meet the increased oxygen demands. This physiological response is known as physiological anemia of pregnancy. Therefore, the RBC count is expected to increase during pregnancy. Bilirubin levels may remain relatively stable, fasting blood glucose levels might fluctuate due to gestational diabetes, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are not typically affected by pregnancy, making them less likely to increase in this scenario. The correct answer is A because an increase in RBC count is a normal physiological adaptation to pregnancy to support the increased oxygen needs of the mother and the growing fetus. Bilirubin, a product of red blood cell breakdown, is more related to liver function and not expected to increase during pregnancy. Fasting blood glucose levels may vary due to gestational diabetes, but it is not a consistent finding in all pregnant individuals. BUN levels are related to kidney function and are not typically impacted by pregnancy, making it an unlikely choice for an expected increase in laboratory values during pregnancy.

4. A client at 30 weeks gestation reports that she has not felt the baby move in the last 24 hours. Concerned, she arrives in a panic at the obstetric clinic where she is immediately sent to the hospital. Which assessment warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Fetal Heart rate 60 beats per minute
• B. Ruptured amniotic membrane
• C. Onset of uterine contractions
• D. Leaking amniotic fluid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 60 beats per minute is significantly below the normal range (110-160 bpm) and indicates fetal distress, requiring immediate intervention. This low heart rate can be a sign of fetal compromise or distress, necessitating urgent evaluation and intervention to ensure the well-being of the fetus. Choices B, C, and D do not indicate immediate fetal distress requiring urgent intervention. Ruptured amniotic membrane, onset of uterine contractions, and leaking amniotic fluid are important assessments but do not present an immediate threat to the fetus's life like a severely low fetal heart rate.

5. A client has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Metronidazole
• B. Fluconazole
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Clindamycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metronidazole is the correct choice for treating bacterial vaginosis as it is the first-line medication recommended for this condition. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of bacteria, making it an effective treatment. Choice B, Fluconazole, is an antifungal medication primarily used for treating fungal infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice C, Acyclovir, is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice D, Clindamycin, is also used to treat bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.

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