Nursing Elites

1. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate 14/min
• C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
• D. 2+ deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

2. A client at 27 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine protein concentration of 200 mg/24 hr.
• B. Creatinine level of 0.8 mg/dL
• C. Hemoglobin level of 14.8 g/dL
• D. Platelet count of 60,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 60,000/mm3 is significantly low and can indicate HELLP syndrome, a severe complication of preeclampsia that involves hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. HELLP syndrome requires prompt medical intervention to prevent serious maternal and fetal complications. The other findings listed are within normal limits or not directly related to the severe condition associated with HELLP syndrome.

3. A client at 38 weeks of gestation has a prescription for intravaginal misoprostol. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. “You will need to stay in a side-lying position for 30 minutes after each dose.”
• B. “You will receive an IV infusion of oxytocin 1 hour after your last dose.”
• C. “You will receive a magnesium supplement immediately following therapy.”
• D. “You will need to have a full bladder before the therapy begins.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Instructing the client to stay in a side-lying position after receiving misoprostol intravaginally is essential. This position helps keep the medication in place, allowing for better absorption. Choice B is incorrect because oxytocin administration is not typically indicated after misoprostol use. Choice C is incorrect as magnesium supplementation is not part of the standard protocol for misoprostol administration. Choice D is incorrect as having a full bladder is not necessary before initiating misoprostol therapy.

4. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?

• A. “Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.”
• B. “The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation.”
• C. “Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.”
• D. “Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Artificial surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It helps improve respiratory compliance by aiding in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide until the infant can produce enough surfactant naturally. The correct explanation to the parents would be that surfactant therapy enhances the baby’s lung function by facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant therapy does not affect sedation needs. Choice C is inaccurate as surfactant is not used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. Choice D is incorrect as surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections; it specifically targets improving lung function in RDS.

5. After meiosis, each new cell nucleus contains _____ chromosomes.

• A. 46
• B. 35
• C. 23
• D. 12

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After meiosis, each resulting cell contains 23 chromosomes. Meiosis is a process that involves two sequential divisions resulting in four daughter cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. In humans, the parent cell has 46 chromosomes (diploid), and after meiosis, the resulting cells (sperm or ova) have 23 chromosomes (haploid). Choice A (46 chromosomes) is incorrect because this is the number of chromosomes in a human diploid cell before meiosis. Choices B (35 chromosomes) and D (12 chromosomes) are incorrect as they do not represent the correct number of chromosomes after meiosis in human cells.

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