Nursing Elites

1. A client at 34 weeks gestation comes to the birthing center complaining of vaginal bleeding that began one hour ago. The nurse's assessment reveals approximately 30ML of bright red vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate of 130 - 140 beats per minute, no contractions, and no complaints of pain. What is the most likely cause of this client's bleeding?

• A. Abruptio Placenta
• B. Placenta Previa
• C. Normal bloody show indicating induction of labor
• D. A ruptured blood vessel in the vaginal vault

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placenta previa, a condition where the placenta covers the cervix, can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. In this scenario, the absence of contractions and pain, along with the presence of significant bright red bleeding, is more indicative of placenta previa rather than abruptio placenta or a ruptured vessel. A normal bloody show typically occurs closer to the onset of labor and is not associated with the amount of bleeding described in the question.

2. Does the probability of having a child with Down’s syndrome increase with the age of the parents?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Sometimes
• D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Advanced parental age, particularly maternal age, is associated with an increased risk of Down's syndrome in offspring. As parents get older, the likelihood of having a child with Down's syndrome increases. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the risk of Down's syndrome is known to rise with parental age, especially maternal age, due to the increased likelihood of chromosomal abnormalities during egg formation.

3. When obtaining a health history from a client, a nurse in a woman’s health clinic should identify which of the following findings as increasing the client’s risk for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

• A. Recurrent Cystitis
• B. Frequent Alcohol Use
• C. Use of Oral Contraceptives
• D. Chlamydia Infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlamydia infection is a significant risk factor for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is often caused by untreated sexually transmitted infections (STIs) like Chlamydia and Gonorrhea that ascend from the vagina to the upper reproductive organs. Recurrent cystitis (choice A) is more related to urinary tract infections, frequent alcohol use (choice B) is not directly linked to PID, and the use of oral contraceptives (choice C) does not increase the risk of developing PID.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn upon admission to the nursery. Which of the following should the provider expect?

• A. Bulging Fontanels
• B. Nasal Flaring
• C. Length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in)
• D. Chest circumference 2 cm (0.8 in) smaller than the head circumference

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Upon admission to the nursery, a healthcare provider should expect the newborn's chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference. This is a normal finding in newborns due to their physiological development. Bulging fontanels (Choice A) can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is abnormal. Nasal flaring (Choice B) is a sign of respiratory distress and is also an abnormal finding. While a length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in) (Choice C) falls within the normal range for newborns, it is not a specific expectation upon admission to the nursery. Therefore, the correct expectation for a newborn upon admission is for the chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference.

5. A woman with gestational diabetes has had little or no experience reading and interpreting glucose levels. The client shows the nurse her readings for the past few days. Which reading signals the nurse that the client may require an adjustment of insulin or carbohydrates?

• A. 75 mg/dl before lunch. This is low; better eat now.
• B. 115 mg/dl 1 hour after lunch. This is a little high; maybe eat a little less next time.
• C. 115 mg/dl 2 hours after lunch. This is too high; it is time for insulin.
• D. 50 mg/dl just after waking up from a nap. This is too low; maybe eat a snack before going to sleep.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: 50 mg/dl after waking from a nap is too low. During hours of sleep, glucose levels should not be less than 60 mg/dl. Snacks before sleeping can be helpful. The premeal acceptable range is 60 to 99 mg/dl. The readings 1 hour after a meal should be less than 129 mg/dl. Two hours after eating, the readings should be less than 120 mg/dl.

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