Nursing Elites

1. A client with brain cancer is transferring to hospice care. The client's son tells the nurse, 'I don’t know what to tell my dad if he asks how he is going to die.' Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. “Let’s talk more about your dad’s condition.”
• B. “The social worker will help you answer those questions.”
• C. “I think that you should discuss this with the hospice nurse.”
• D. “Try to help your dad enjoy this time as much as he can.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choosing option D, 'Try to help your dad enjoy this time as much as he can,' is the most appropriate response by the nurse. This response shows empathy and compassion towards the client and their family during this difficult transition. The focus on supporting the client in enjoying their remaining time reflects a holistic approach to care. Options A, B, and C are not the best responses in this situation. Option A could lead to unnecessary details that might be overwhelming for the family. Option B shifts the responsibility to the social worker without providing immediate support. Option C deflects the son's concerns to another healthcare professional when emotional support is needed.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

• A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
• B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
• C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
• D. No special preparation is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

5. A nurse in a provider's office is obtaining the health and medication history of a client who has a respiratory infection. The client tells the nurse that she is not aware of any allergies, but that she did develop a rash the last time she was taking an antibiotic. Which of the following information should the nurse give the client?

• A. "Rashes are very common, especially if you have dry skin. Did it go away on its own?"
• B. "Virtually all medications have adverse effects. It sounds like this could have been an adverse effect of the antibiotic."
• C. "It's unlikely that your doctor will prescribe an antibiotic for what seems to be a minor viral infection, so we shouldn't be concerned about that rash."
• D. "We need to document the exact medication you were taking because you might be allergic to it."

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. If a client reports developing a rash when taking a specific medication, even if they are not aware of any allergies, it is crucial to document this information. This is necessary to prevent future allergic reactions. Identifying the exact medication that caused the rash is essential as the client could have an allergy to it. Providing this information allows healthcare providers to avoid prescribing the same medication again, which could potentially lead to more severe allergic reactions or life-threatening situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the importance of documenting the specific medication that caused the adverse reaction or the potential risks of repeating the medication. Simply attributing the rash to common occurrences, adverse effects of medications in general, or assuming the rash is insignificant in the current context can overlook the critical aspect of identifying and avoiding allergens.

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