Nursing Elites

1. A nurse educator is conducting a parenting class for new guardians of infants. Which of the following statements made by a participant indicated understanding?

• A. “I will set my water heater at 130°F.”
• B. “Once my baby can sit up, they should be safe in the bathtub.”
• C. “I will place my baby on their stomach to sleep.”
• D. “Once my infant starts to push up, I will remove the mobile from over the crib.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Removing the mobile when the baby starts to push up prevents choking hazards as infants can reach and grab objects posing a risk of choking. Choice A is unsafe as setting the water heater at 130°F can scald a child. Choice B is incorrect because even when a baby can sit up, they still require close supervision in the bathtub. Choice C is unsafe as current guidelines recommend placing babies on their backs to sleep to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect or unsafe practices for infant care.

2. The nurse is caring for an adult who has fluid volume excess. When weighing the client, the nurse should:

• A. Weigh the client upon rising
• B. Weigh the client at different times of the day
• C. Weigh the client after meals
• D. Weigh the client weekly

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weighing the client upon rising is the correct approach when caring for a client with fluid volume excess. Weighing the client in the morning upon rising provides a consistent and accurate measure of weight, as it helps to eliminate the influence of daily fluctuations that can occur throughout the day. Weighing at different times of the day (choice B) may lead to inconsistent measurements due to variations in food intake, hydration status, and other factors. Weighing the client after meals (choice C) can also lead to inaccurate readings as food and fluid intake can affect weight. Weighing the client weekly (choice D) is not frequent enough to monitor changes in weight accurately for a client with fluid volume excess.

3. A charge nurse on an acute care unit is planning care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote the client’s continuity of care?

• A. Plan to assign the client a different nurse each shift
• B. Limit the number of interdisciplinary team members involved in managing the client’s care
• C. Request that the client complete a satisfaction survey at discharge
• D. Start discharge planning on the day of admission

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Starting discharge planning on the day of admission is crucial to ensuring a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. It allows for early identification of needs, coordination of services, and timely interventions. Assigning a different nurse each shift (Choice A) can disrupt continuity of care and lead to inconsistencies in the client's treatment. Limiting the number of interdisciplinary team members (Choice B) may hinder comprehensive care coordination. Requesting a satisfaction survey at discharge (Choice C) focuses more on feedback rather than proactive care planning and coordination.

4. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Gingival hyperplasia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septicemia. Which assessment finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Increased respiratory rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with septicemia, decreased blood pressure is a critical finding that suggests potential septic shock, a life-threatening condition. Septic shock requires immediate medical intervention to prevent further deterioration and organ dysfunction. Increased urine output (Choice A) may indicate adequate fluid resuscitation, which is a positive response. Increased heart rate (Choice C) and increased respiratory rate (Choice D) are common physiological responses to sepsis and do not necessarily indicate immediate life-threatening complications like decreased blood pressure does in septic shock.

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