Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which laboratory value would be most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Blood glucose level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the white blood cell count. Chemotherapy can lead to neutropenia, which is a decrease in white blood cells, particularly neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections, making it crucial to monitor the white blood cell count during chemotherapy. Monitoring hemoglobin level is important but not as critical as white blood cell count in this scenario. Serum creatinine and blood glucose levels are not directly impacted by chemotherapy for breast cancer, making them less relevant to monitor in this situation.

2. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.

3. When admitting a 5-month-old who has vomited 9 times in the past 6 hours, what should the healthcare provider observe for signs of which overall imbalance?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Increased serum hemoglobin levels
• D. Decreased serum potassium levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a 5-month-old infant vomits multiple times, there is a risk of developing metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of stomach acid. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. It is caused by the loss of hydrogen ions from the body, often through vomiting. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is unlikely in this scenario because it is more commonly associated with conditions like renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, increased serum hemoglobin levels, is not typically a direct consequence of vomiting. Choice D, decreased serum potassium levels, may occur with vomiting but is not the primary concern when a patient is vomiting excessively.

4. A middle adult client tells the nurse, 'I feel so useless now that my children do not need me anymore.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. People in middle adulthood often find satisfaction in nurturing and guiding young people.
• B. It's normal to feel this way; it will pass.
• C. You should focus on finding new activities to fill your time.
• D. Your children will always need you in some way.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A. Middle adulthood is a stage where individuals often experience generativity, finding fulfillment in guiding and nurturing others. By acknowledging this aspect, the nurse can help the client explore opportunities to engage in activities that provide a sense of purpose and satisfaction. Choice A validates the client's feelings and offers a constructive way to address them. Choices B, C, and D do not address the client's emotional need for purpose and may not encourage the client to seek meaningful ways to address their feelings of uselessness.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider?

• A. Heart rate of 55 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
• D. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 60 beats per minute is a contraindication for administering digoxin, as it can lead to bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common adverse effect associated with digoxin toxicity. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL are within normal limits and would not warrant withholding the medication or contacting the healthcare provider in this context. Therefore, a heart rate of 55 beats per minute would prompt the nurse to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.

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