Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Bubbling in the water seal chamber
• B. Drainage greater than 70 ml/hour
• C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
• D. Absence of breath sounds on the affected side

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The absence of breath sounds on the affected side is a critical finding that may indicate a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. This situation can lead to a shift of the mediastinum and impaired ventilation. Bubbling in the water seal chamber is an expected finding in a chest tube drainage system and indicates proper functioning. Drainage greater than 70 ml/hour is a concern but does not require immediate reporting unless it continues at a high rate or is associated with other symptoms. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation and indicates the chest tube system is patent and functioning correctly.

2. When performing nasotracheal suctioning for a client with a respiratory infection, what technique should the nurse use?

• A. Apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter
• B. Suction continuously while inserting the catheter
• C. Suction intermittently while inserting the catheter
• D. Use a Yankauer suction device

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When performing nasotracheal suctioning for a client with a respiratory infection, the nurse should apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter. This technique helps minimize mucosal damage and is considered best practice. Choice B, suctioning continuously while inserting the catheter, is incorrect as continuous suctioning can cause trauma to the airway. Choice C, suctioning intermittently while inserting the catheter, is also incorrect as it can increase the risk of hypoxia and mucosal damage. Choice D, using a Yankauer suction device, is not appropriate for nasotracheal suctioning as it is typically used for oral suctioning. Therefore, the correct technique is to apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter to ensure effective and safe suctioning.

3. A client is receiving continuous IV fluid therapy via a peripheral vein in the left forearm. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed phlebitis at the IV site?

• A. Erythema along the path of the vein
• B. Pitting edema at the insertion site
• C. Coolness of the client’s left forearm
• D. Pallor of the client’s left forearm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema (redness) along the path of the vein is a classic sign of phlebitis, indicating inflammation of the vein. This occurs due to irritation or infection at the IV site. Pitting edema (choice B) is not typically associated with phlebitis but suggests fluid overload or poor circulation. Coolness (choice C) and pallor (choice D) of the forearm are not characteristic signs of phlebitis but may indicate impaired circulation or reduced blood flow to the area.

4. The LPN is caring for a client who has been placed in restraints. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Ensure that the client’s circulation is checked every hour.
• B. Document the reason for the restraints every 4 hours.
• C. Provide range-of-motion exercises every 2 hours.
• D. Release the restraints every 2 hours for repositioning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse to take when caring for a client in restraints is to release the restraints every 2 hours for repositioning. This practice helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and impaired circulation by ensuring adequate blood flow and preventing skin breakdown. Checking the client's circulation every hour (Choice A) is important, but releasing the restraints for repositioning takes precedence to prevent serious complications. While documenting the reason for restraints (Choice B) is essential for legal and documentation purposes, it is not as critical as providing necessary care to the client's physical well-being. Providing range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) is beneficial for maintaining mobility but may not address the immediate risks associated with prolonged restraint use.

5. A nurse at a screening clinic is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis. At which of the following anatomical areas should the nurse place the stethoscope to auscultate the aortic valve?

• A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
• B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
• C. Left sternal border
• D. Fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct placement to auscultate the aortic valve is at the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum, which coincides with the aortic area. The choice stating 'Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line' is the correct answer for auscultating the aortic valve. Placing the stethoscope at the left sternal border would be more suitable for listening to the tricuspid valve. The fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line is the recommended area for auscultating the mitral valve. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer for assessing the aortic valve in a client with a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis.

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