Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the nurse take to maintain patency of the tube?

• A. Flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration.
• B. Administer the medication with food to prevent nausea.
• C. Verify tube placement by aspirating stomach contents.
• D. Dilute the medication with normal saline before administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To maintain the patency of a nasogastric (NG) tube, it is essential to flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration. This action helps ensure that the tube remains open and free from blockages. Flushing the tube prevents any medication residue from causing blockages, maintaining its patency. Choice B is incorrect because administering medication with food does not relate to maintaining tube patency. Choice C is incorrect as verifying tube placement by aspirating stomach contents is related to confirming correct tube placement, not maintaining patency. Choice D is also incorrect because diluting the medication with normal saline is not primarily aimed at maintaining the tube's patency.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Hourly urine output
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
• D. Temperature every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

3. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The LPN plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

• A. 150
• B. 50
• C. 100
• D. 75

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting the infusion pump to 150 ml/hr ensures the correct administration rate of the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. To calculate the infusion rate, consider that the total volume to be infused is 50 ml over 20 minutes. To convert this to ml/hr, the calculation is (50 ml / 20 minutes) x 60 minutes/hr = 150 ml/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate needed to deliver the secondary infusion over the specified time.

4. During the stages of dying, a client reaches the point of acceptance. What response should the LPN/LVN expect the client to exhibit?

• A. Apathy
• B. Euphoria
• C. Detachment
• D. Emotionalism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the stages of dying, when a client reaches the point of acceptance, the expected response is 'Detachment.' This is characterized by the individual withdrawing emotionally and psychologically from their surroundings as they come to terms with their impending death. Apathy (Choice A) refers to a lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern, which is not typically associated with the acceptance stage. Euphoria (Choice B) is an intense feeling of happiness or excitement, which is less likely during the acceptance stage of dying. Emotionalism (Choice D) involves exaggerated or uncontrollable emotional reactions, which are not commonly seen during the acceptance phase.

5. A client has extracellular fluid volume deficit. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Postural hypotension
• B. Distended neck veins
• C. Dependent edema
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Postural hypotension is a common sign of extracellular fluid volume deficit due to decreased blood volume, leading to a drop in blood pressure upon standing. Distended neck veins, dependent edema, and bradycardia are not typically associated with extracellular fluid volume deficit. Distended neck veins are more indicative of fluid volume overload, dependent edema is a sign of fluid retention, and bradycardia is not a common finding in extracellular fluid volume deficit.

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