HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A client has been tentatively diagnosed with Graves' disease (hyperthyroidism). Which of these findings noted on the initial nursing assessment requires quick intervention by the nurse?
- A. A report of 10 pounds weight loss in the last month
- B. A comment by the client 'I just can't sit still.'
- C. The appearance of eyeballs that appear to 'pop' out of the client's eye sockets
- D. A report of the sudden onset of irritability in the past 2 weeks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The appearance of eyeballs that appear to 'pop' out of the client's eye sockets, known as exophthalmos, requires quick intervention as it is a severe symptom of Graves' disease. Exophthalmos can indicate an acute condition and may lead to serious complications such as optic nerve damage or corneal ulceration. Weight loss, restlessness, and irritability are common manifestations of hyperthyroidism but do not pose immediate risks compared to the ocular complications associated with exophthalmos.
2. The caregiver is assessing an 8-month-old child with atonic cerebral palsy. Which statement from the caregiver supports the presence of this problem?
- A. When I place my finger in the left hand, the baby does not respond with a grasp.
- B. My baby does not seem to track objects when I move toys in front of their face.
- C. When it thundered loudly last night, the baby did not even startle.
- D. When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The statement 'When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby' supports the presence of atonic cerebral palsy. In this type of cerebral palsy, the child may have poor muscle tone, making it difficult for them to roll from a back-lying position. This inability to roll indicates a lack of muscle tone, which is a characteristic feature of atonic cerebral palsy. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the muscle tone issues typical of atonic cerebral palsy. Choice A focuses on a lack of grasp response, which may suggest motor issues but not specifically atonic cerebral palsy. Choice B refers to visual tracking, and choice C is about the startle reflex, neither of which are defining characteristics of atonic cerebral palsy.
3. A nurse is reviewing nutritional guidelines with the parents of a 2-year-old toddler. Which of the following parent statements should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching?
- A. “I should keep feeding my son whole milk until he is 3 years old.”
- B. “It’s okay for me to give my son a cup of apple juice with each meal.”
- C. “I’ll give my son about 2 tablespoons of each food at mealtimes.”
- D. “My son loves popcorn, and I know it is better for him than sweets.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Offering a variety of foods in small portions is appropriate for a 2-year-old toddler as it helps provide balanced nutrition and allows the child to explore different tastes and textures. Choice A is incorrect because whole milk is recommended up to 2 years old, not until 3 years old. Choice B is incorrect as excessive juice intake can lead to excessive sugar consumption and is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as popcorn may pose a choking hazard for toddlers and is not a suitable alternative to sweets.
4. During an IV catheter insertion demonstration, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding of the procedure?
- A. “I will thread the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
- B. “I will insert the needle into the client’s skin at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
- C. “I will apply pressure approximately 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle.”
- D. “I will select a vein in the antecubital fossa for IV insertion based on its size and easily accessible location.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct technique for IV catheter insertion involves inserting the needle at a 10 to 30-degree angle with the bevel up. This angle facilitates proper vein puncture, reduces the risk of complications, and minimizes trauma to the vein. Choice A is incorrect because threading the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up is the correct technique, not threading it all the way into the vein. Choice C is incorrect because applying pressure 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle is not a standard step in IV catheter insertion. Choice D is incorrect because selecting the antecubital fossa vein solely based on its size and accessibility may not be the most appropriate criterion; vein selection should also consider factors like vein condition and patient comfort.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a vest restraint. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Tie the restraint with a quick-release knot.
- B. Use a slipknot to secure the restraint.
- C. Ensure the restraint is tightly secured.
- D. Attach the restraint to the bed frame.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional to take when applying a vest restraint is to tie it with a quick-release knot. A quick-release knot allows for easy and rapid removal in case of an emergency, ensuring the safety of the client. Using a slipknot (Choice B) is not recommended as it may not provide quick release in emergencies. Ensuring the restraint is tightly secured (Choice C) can be dangerous as it can restrict circulation or cause discomfort. Attaching the restraint to the bed frame (Choice D) is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or injury to the client.
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