Nursing Elites

1. A client has been tentatively diagnosed with Graves' disease (hyperthyroidism). Which of these findings noted on the initial nursing assessment requires quick intervention by the nurse?

• A. A report of 10 pounds weight loss in the last month
• B. A comment by the client 'I just can't sit still.'
• C. The appearance of eyeballs that appear to 'pop' out of the client's eye sockets
• D. A report of the sudden onset of irritability in the past 2 weeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appearance of eyeballs that appear to 'pop' out of the client's eye sockets, known as exophthalmos, requires quick intervention as it is a severe symptom of Graves' disease. Exophthalmos can indicate an acute condition and may lead to serious complications such as optic nerve damage or corneal ulceration. Weight loss, restlessness, and irritability are common manifestations of hyperthyroidism but do not pose immediate risks compared to the ocular complications associated with exophthalmos.

2. During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating the breath sounds of an adult client diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest.
• B. Ask the client to breathe in deeply through their nose.
• C. Instruct the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward.
• D. Place the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing breath sounds in a client with pneumonia, the nurse should follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest. This approach ensures a comprehensive evaluation of breath sounds across different lung fields. Asking the client to breathe in deeply through their nose (Choice B) is not necessary for assessing breath sounds. Instructing the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward (Choice C) is not directly related to assessing breath sounds and may not be required. Placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest (Choice D) is not the correct technique for auscultating breath sounds, as the diaphragm should be used for this purpose.

3. A healthcare professional is planning to document care provided for a client. Which of the following abbreviations should the professional use?

• A. PC for after meals
• B. QD for every day
• C. BID for twice a day
• D. PRN for as needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PC for after meals. PC stands for 'post cibum,' which is the appropriate abbreviation for 'after meals' in medical documentation. Choices B, QD, and C, BID, represent 'every day' and 'twice a day,' respectively, which are not specific to meal times. Choice D, PRN, signifies 'as needed,' which is also not related to meal timings. Therefore, for documenting care provided after meals, the most suitable abbreviation is PC.

4. A client with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is seeking advice on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. What action should the nurse recommend?

• A. Plan meals with low carbohydrates and high protein
• B. Engage in strenuous activity for an hour daily
• C. Keep a record of daily food and beverage intake
• D. Participate in a group exercise class three times a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping a food diary is an essential practice when starting a weight loss plan as it helps in tracking calorie intake, identifying eating patterns, and making informed decisions about dietary changes. Planning meals with low carbohydrates and high protein (Choice A) can be beneficial for some individuals, but keeping a food diary is more foundational. Engaging in strenuous daily activity (Choice B) may not be sustainable for everyone and could lead to burnout or injuries. Participating in a group exercise class (Choice D) is beneficial for fitness but may not address dietary habits, which are crucial for weight loss.

5. During new employee orientation, a nurse is explaining how to prevent IV infections. Which of the following statements by an orientee indicates understanding of the preventive strategies?

• A. “I will leave the IV catheter in place after the client completes the course of IV antibiotics.”
• B. “As long as I am working with the same client, I can use the same IV catheter for my second insertion attempt.”
• C. “If my client needs to use the restroom, it would be safer to disconnect their IV infusion as long as I clean the injection port thoroughly with an antiseptic swab.”
• D. “I will replace any IV catheter when I suspect contamination during insertion.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will replace any IV catheter when I suspect contamination during insertion.” This statement demonstrates an understanding of preventive strategies for IV infections. Suspecting and replacing any contaminated IV catheter during insertion is crucial to prevent infections and ensure patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because leaving the IV catheter in place after completing antibiotics, reusing the same IV catheter, and disconnecting the IV infusion without proper precautions can increase the risk of infections. Therefore, option D is the best choice for preventing IV infections.

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