HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client with amphetamine toxicity and sensory overload is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Immediately conduct a thorough assessment.
- B. Encourage visitors to distract the client.
- C. Provide a private room and limit stimulation.
- D. Speak softly to the client.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with amphetamine toxicity and sensory overload is to provide a private room and limit stimulation. This approach helps reduce external stimuli, which can exacerbate sensory overload, and creates a calming environment for the client. Encouraging visitors to distract the client may worsen sensory overload by adding more stimulation. Speaking softly, rather than at a higher volume, is more suitable to help maintain a calm environment. Therefore, the correct choice is to provide a private room and limit stimulation (option C) in this scenario.
2. A client has right-sided paralysis following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate to prevent a plantar flexion contracture of the affected extremity?
- A. Ankle-foot orthotic
- B. Continuous passive motion machine
- C. Abduction splint
- D. Sequential compression device
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An ankle-foot orthotic is the correct choice to prevent a plantar flexion contracture in a paralyzed limb. An ankle-foot orthotic helps maintain proper alignment of the foot and ankle, preventing the foot from being permanently fixed in a pointed-down position. Continuous passive motion machines are typically used to promote joint movement after surgery and would not address the prevention of contractures in this case. Abduction splints are used to keep the legs apart and would not address the specific issue described. Sequential compression devices are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities and are not indicated for preventing plantar flexion contractures.
3. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Gingival hyperplasia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.
4. The client is receiving discharge instructions for warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
- B. I will have my blood tested regularly to monitor my INR levels.
- C. I will take the medication at the same time every day.
- D. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent bleeding gums.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin need to be consistent with their vitamin K intake to maintain a balance in blood clotting. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K is essential as they can interfere with the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding warfarin therapy. Regular blood testing to monitor INR levels ensures the medication is working effectively, taking the medication at the same time daily maintains a consistent level in the bloodstream, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding due to warfarin's anticoagulant effects.
5. The patient refuses to bathe in the morning, stating a preference for evening baths. What is the best action for the nurse?
- A. Defer the bath until evening and pass on the information to the next shift.
- B. Tell the patient that daily morning baths are part of the 'normal' routine.
- C. Explain the importance of maintaining morning hygiene practices.
- D. Cancel hygiene for the day and attempt again in the morning.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best action by the nurse is to respect the patient's preference and autonomy. Defer the bath until evening to allow the patient to follow their usual hygiene routine. Passing on the information to the next shift ensures continuity of care. Choice B is incorrect because it disregards the patient's preference and autonomy. Choice C, while important, does not address the patient's immediate concern. Choice D is incorrect as it does not respect the patient's wishes and may lead to further resistance to bathing.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access