HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client with amphetamine toxicity and sensory overload is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Immediately conduct a thorough assessment.
- B. Encourage visitors to distract the client.
- C. Provide a private room and limit stimulation.
- D. Speak softly to the client.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with amphetamine toxicity and sensory overload is to provide a private room and limit stimulation. This approach helps reduce external stimuli, which can exacerbate sensory overload, and creates a calming environment for the client. Encouraging visitors to distract the client may worsen sensory overload by adding more stimulation. Speaking softly, rather than at a higher volume, is more suitable to help maintain a calm environment. Therefore, the correct choice is to provide a private room and limit stimulation (option C) in this scenario.
2. A provider prescribes cold application for a client who reports ankle joint stiffness. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the application of cold?
- A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds
- B. 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle
- C. Warts on the affected ankle
- D. 2+ pitting edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds indicates poor circulation, which is a contraindication to cold application as it could worsen the condition by further reducing blood flow. Choice B, a 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle, does not directly contraindicate cold application but may need evaluation for possible underlying injuries. Choice C, warts on the affected ankle, do not necessarily contraindicate cold application. Choice D, 2+ pitting edema, is not a direct contraindication to cold application but may need to be addressed separately.
3. The nurse is preparing to provide a complete bed bath to an unconscious patient. The nurse decides to use a bag bath. In which order will the nurse clean the body, starting with the first area?
- A. Neck, shoulders, and chest
- B. Abdomen and groin/perineum
- C. Legs, feet, and web spaces
- D. Back of neck, back, and then buttocks
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In providing a complete bed bath using a bag bath for an unconscious patient, the nurse should follow a specific order. The correct sequence is as follows: Neck, shoulders, and chest; Both arms, both hands, web spaces, and axilla; Abdomen and then groin/perineum; Right leg, right foot, and web spaces; Left leg, left foot, and web spaces; Back of neck, back, and then buttocks. Choice A is incorrect as it does not follow the correct sequence for a bed bath. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the lower extremities before addressing the upper body. Choice D is incorrect as it starts with the back of the patient instead of the upper body areas first.
4. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. INR of 1.5
- B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- D. aPTT of 70 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.
5. A nurse is caring for a client postoperatively. When the nurse prepares to change the dressing, the client says it hurts. Which intervention is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer pain medication 45 minutes prior to dressing change.
- B. Change the dressing quickly to minimize pain.
- C. Provide reassurance to the client that the pain will pass.
- D. Use a less painful dressing technique.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering pain medication before the dressing change is the priority action to help manage the client's pain effectively. This intervention ensures that the client is comfortable during the procedure. Changing the dressing quickly may cause more discomfort to the client. Providing reassurance is important but does not address the immediate pain concern. Using a less painful dressing technique may be helpful, but administering pain medication first is the priority to address the client's pain promptly.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access