Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted for evaluation and control of HTN. Several hours after the client's admission, the nurse discovers the client supine on the floor, unresponsive to verbal or painful stimuli. The nurse's first reaction at this time is to:

• A. Establish an airway
• B. Call for assistance
• C. Check the client's pulse and blood pressure
• D. Perform CPR

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a client is found unresponsive on the floor, the nurse's first priority is to establish an airway. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and receive oxygen. Without a patent airway, the client's oxygenation and ventilation may be compromised, leading to serious consequences. Calling for assistance is important, but establishing an airway takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's ability to breathe. Checking the client's pulse and blood pressure can be done after ensuring a clear airway. Performing CPR is not the immediate action needed unless the client's breathing and pulse are absent after the airway has been secured.

2. A client who has just had a mastectomy has a closed wound suction device (hemovac) in place. Which nursing action will ensure proper operation of the device?

• A. Collapsing the device whenever it is 1/2 to 2/3 full of air.
• B. Emptying the device every 4 hours.
• C. Replacing the device every 24 hours.
• D. Keeping the device above the level of the surgical site.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Collapsing the device when it is 1/2 to 2/3 full of air is the correct nursing action to ensure proper operation of a closed wound suction device (hemovac). This action maintains negative pressure, which is essential for proper suction and drainage of the wound. Emptying the device every 4 hours (Choice B) is not necessary as the focus should be on collapsing it appropriately. Replacing the device every 24 hours (Choice C) is not a standard practice unless indicated by the healthcare provider. Keeping the device above the level of the surgical site (Choice D) is not necessary for the device's proper operation; collapsing it to maintain negative pressure is the key action.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
• C. Serum potassium level
• D. Serum creatinine level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

4. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

5. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Mongolian spots are a normal finding in dark-skinned infants.
• B. Port wine stains are typically associated with other malformations.
• C. Telangiectatic nevi are normal and will disappear as the baby grows.
• D. The child is too young for surgical removal of these at this time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.

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