HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Gelatin
- B. Whole milk
- C. Cream soups
- D. Orange juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.
2. What is the most therapeutic nursing response for a client with borderline personality disorder who engages in self-mutilating behavior?
- A. Encourage the client to stop hurting themselves.
- B. Discuss what the client was feeling before self-harming.
- C. Inform the client that the behavior will be reported to their doctor.
- D. Ask the client why they hurt themselves.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most therapeutic nursing response for a client with borderline personality disorder engaging in self-mutilating behavior is to discuss what the client was feeling before self-harming. This approach helps in exploring the underlying triggers and emotions that lead to self-harm. Option A is directive and may come across as judgmental rather than empathetic. Option C can lead to feelings of betrayal and breach of trust. Option D is a closed-ended question that may not facilitate open communication or exploration of emotions.
3. A nurse manager is developing strategies to care for the increasing number of clients who have obesity. Which of the following actions should the nurse include as a primary health care strategy?
- A. Collaborating with providers to perform obesity screenings during routine office visits.
- B. Ensuring the availability of specialized beds in rehabilitation centers for clients who have obesity.
- C. Providing specialized intraoperative training in surgical treatments for obesity.
- D. Educating acute care nurses about postoperative complications related to obesity.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Collaborating with providers to perform obesity screenings during routine office visits. This is a primary health care strategy as it focuses on prevention and early detection, which are key components of managing obesity. Screening during routine visits allows for timely identification of obesity and related health risks, enabling early intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not align with primary health care strategies for obesity. Ensuring availability of specialized beds, providing intraoperative training, and educating about postoperative complications are more focused on secondary and tertiary levels of care, rather than primary prevention and early detection.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?
- A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
- B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
- C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
- D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. The nurse should instruct the client to report which potential side effect?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Nausea
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry mouth. Tiotropium, a commonly prescribed medication for COPD, can cause dry mouth as a side effect. While it may not be severe, clients should report it if it becomes bothersome. Dry mouth is a common side effect of tiotropium due to its anticholinergic properties. Blurred vision, nausea, and tachycardia are not typically associated with tiotropium use in the context of COPD.