Nursing Elites

1. A female client’s significant other has been at her bedside providing reassurances and support for the past 3 days, as desired by the client. The client’s estranged husband arrives and demands that the significant other not be allowed to visit or be given condition updates. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Obtain a prescription from the healthcare provider regarding visitation privileges
• B. Request a consultation with the ethics committee for resolution of the situation
• C. Encourage the client to speak with her husband regarding his disruptive behavior
• D. Communicate the client’s wishes to all members of the multidisciplinary team

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client's estranged husband demands to restrict the visitation of the significant other, it is essential to prioritize the client's wishes while addressing the conflict. Requesting a consultation with the ethics committee is appropriate as it allows for a comprehensive and impartial resolution, ensuring the client's autonomy and well-being are upheld. Option A is incorrect because visitation privileges are not solely determined by a healthcare provider's prescription in this scenario. Option C may not be appropriate as it puts the client in a potentially uncomfortable or unsafe position. Option D, while important, does not directly address the conflict between the estranged husband and the significant other.

2. The nurse-manager of a skilled nursing (chronic care) unit is instructing UAPs on ways to prevent complications of immobility. Which intervention should be included in this instruction?

• A. Perform range-of-motion exercises to prevent contractures.
• B. Decrease the client's fluid intake to prevent diarrhea.
• C. Massage the client's legs to reduce the occurrence of embolisms.
• D. Turn the client from side to back every shift.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing range-of-motion exercises is essential in preventing contractures, which are common complications of immobility. These exercises help maintain joint flexibility and muscle strength, reducing the risk of contractures that can lead to functional limitations or pain for the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing fluid intake does not prevent immobility complications, but it can lead to dehydration. Massaging the client's legs does not directly address the prevention of immobility complications like contractures. Turning the client from side to back every shift is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address complications of immobility like contractures.

3. When measuring vital signs, the healthcare provider observes that a client is using accessory neck muscles during respirations. What follow-up action should the healthcare provider take first?

• A. Determine pulse pressure
• B. Auscultate heart sounds
• C. Measure oxygen saturation
• D. Check for neck vein distention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing a client using accessory neck muscles during respiration indicates respiratory distress. The priority action should be to measure oxygen saturation to assess the adequacy of oxygenation. This intervention provides crucial information about the client's respiratory status and helps guide further assessment and interventions.

4. The patient had a CVA and developed right-sided hemiplegia. Which action is least appropriate for the nurse to take?

• A. Performing ROM exercises during bathing.
• B. Changing the patient's position every two hours.
• C. Suctioning the patient supine and tightly pulling the bed sheets across their feet.
• D. Placing the patient in the prone position for one hour three times a day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suctioning the patient in a supine position and pulling the bed sheets tightly across their feet can lead to foot drop, which is harmful for a patient with right-sided hemiplegia. This action can exacerbate muscle weakness and impair circulation in the affected limb. It is crucial to avoid actions that may compromise the patient's safety and well-being, such as causing foot drop in this scenario.

5. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.

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