Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a surgical wound. Which of the following laboratory values places the client at risk for poor wound healing?

• A. Serum albumin 3 g/dL
• B. Total lymphocyte count 2400/mm3
• C. HCT 42%
• D. HGB 16 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin 3 g/dL. Low levels of serum albumin indicate poor nutritional status and can impair wound healing. Total lymphocyte count, HCT, and HGB levels are not directly related to wound healing and do not pose a significant risk for poor wound healing in this context. Total lymphocyte count reflects the immune status, HCT measures the percentage of red blood cells in blood, and HGB measures the amount of hemoglobin in blood.

2. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

3. A client with a history of asthma presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing and wheezing. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator
• B. Obtain a peak flow reading
• C. Provide supplemental oxygen
• D. Assess the client's respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a history of asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and wheezing, the priority nursing action is to administer a bronchodilator. This intervention helps relieve bronchospasm and improve the client's breathing. Obtaining a peak flow reading can provide additional information but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Providing supplemental oxygen may be needed but addressing the bronchospasm with a bronchodilator takes precedence. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is important but not as urgent as administering a bronchodilator to address the breathing difficulty.

4. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the teaching?

• A. I will take my warfarin at the same time every day.
• B. I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush while taking this medication.
• C. I should take my warfarin at bedtime.
• D. I should avoid eating foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking warfarin at the same time every day is essential to maintain a consistent blood level of the medication. This statement indicates that the client understands the teaching about the importance of consistency in medication timing. Choice B, regarding using a soft-bristled toothbrush, is not directly related to warfarin therapy and does not assess the client's understanding of warfarin administration. Choice C suggesting taking warfarin at bedtime is incorrect; it is generally recommended to take warfarin at the same time each day to avoid variations in drug levels. Choice D about avoiding foods high in vitamin K is relevant as vitamin K can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects. However, it is not the best indicator of understanding the teaching on medication timing, which is crucial for warfarin efficacy.

5. A client who had a stroke requires assistance with morning ADLs. Which of the following interprofessional team members should the nurse consult?

• A. Registered dietitian.
• B. Occupational therapist.
• C. Speech-language pathologist.
• D. Physical therapist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Occupational therapist. An occupational therapist specializes in assisting clients with daily living activities, making them crucial for a stroke patient requiring help with morning activities of daily living (ADLs). While a registered dietitian (A) may provide nutritional guidance, a speech-language pathologist (C) focuses on communication and swallowing disorders, and a physical therapist (D) primarily deals with mobility and physical rehabilitation. However, none of these professionals directly address the specific needs related to ADLs following a stroke as effectively as an occupational therapist.

Similar Questions