Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse?

• A. Diffuse expiratory wheezing
• B. Loose, productive cough
• C. No relief from inhaler
• D. Fever and chills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an acute asthma attack, one of the expected assessments by the nurse would be diffuse expiratory wheezing. This occurs due to narrowed airways and increased airflow velocity. Choice B, a loose productive cough, is not typically associated with an asthma attack. Choice C, no relief from inhaler, may indicate ineffective treatment but is not a direct assessment finding related to the physical examination. Choice D, fever and chills, are not typical symptoms of an asthma attack and would not be expected findings during the initial assessment of an acute asthma attack.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Low blood pressure
• D. Thirst

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the excretion of large amounts of dilute urine. Reporting increased urine output is crucial as it is a hallmark sign of diabetes insipidus. Weight gain (choice A) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus; instead, clients may experience weight loss due to fluid loss. Low blood pressure (choice C) can be a complication of diabetes insipidus due to dehydration from excessive urination, but the priority finding to report is the increased urine output. Thirst (choice D) is a common symptom of diabetes insipidus due to the body's attempt to compensate for fluid loss, but it is not the most critical finding to report.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to treatment?

• A. Dry mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased heart rate
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is the correct assessment finding that indicates the client is responding to treatment for dehydration. When a client is dehydrated, their urine output tends to decrease as the body tries to conserve fluids. Therefore, an increase in urine output suggests that the client's hydration status is improving. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration and would not indicate a positive response to treatment. Decreased heart rate (Choice C) and elevated blood pressure (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hydration status in a client with dehydration.

4. During an eye assessment, what action should the nurse take to assess a client's extraocular eye movements?

• A. Position the client 6.1 m (20 ft) away from the Snellen chart
• B. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze
• C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye
• D. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 inches) away from the client's eye

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action to assess extraocular eye movements effectively. This technique evaluates the function of the six extraocular muscles and cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Positioning the client 6.1 m away from the Snellen chart is more relevant for visual acuity testing. Asking the client to cover their right eye during the assessment is not necessary for evaluating extraocular movements. Holding a finger at a specific distance in front of the client's eye is not an appropriate method for assessing extraocular eye movements.

5. A nurse in a surgical suite notes documentation on a client's medical record stating that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client's procedure, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

• A. Ensure sterilization of non-disposable items with ethylene oxide
• B. Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette and secure them with non-latex tape
• C. Cleanse latex ports on IV tubing with chlorhexidine before administering medication
• D. Wear hypoallergenic latex gloves that are powder-free

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should take precautions to prevent latex exposure to the client due to his latex allergy. Wrapping monitoring cords with stockinette and securing them with non-latex tape helps to minimize the risk of latex contact with the client. Choice A is incorrect as sterilizing non-disposable items with ethylene oxide does not specifically address the avoidance of latex exposure. Choice C involves using latex ports on IV tubing, which can pose a risk of allergic reaction in a client with a latex allergy. Choice D suggests wearing latex gloves, even if hypoallergenic, which can still trigger a reaction in individuals with latex allergy. Therefore, the best option is to choose non-latex materials like stockinette and non-latex tape to prevent direct contact with latex.

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