HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A nurse at a provider’s office is discussing routine screenings with a 45-year-old female client who has no specific family history of cancer or diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to proceed?
- A. “So I don’t need the colon cancer screening for another 2 or 3 years.”
- B. “For now, I should continue to have a mammogram each year.”
- C. “Because the doctor just performed a Pap smear, I’ll return next year for another one.”
- D. “I had my glucose test last year, so I won’t need it again for 4 years.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mammograms are recommended annually for women starting at age 40 or 45. This statement aligns with current guidelines for breast cancer screening in women without specific risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because colon cancer screenings are typically recommended at different intervals. Choice C is incorrect as Pap smears are usually done every 3-5 years based on age and risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because glucose testing is usually recommended more frequently, especially for individuals at risk for diabetes mellitus.
2. After a renal biopsy, a client has returned to the unit. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate?
- A. Ambulate the client 4 hours after the procedure
- B. Maintain the client on NPO status for 24 hours
- C. Monitor vital signs
- D. Change the dressing every 8 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring vital signs is crucial after a renal biopsy to promptly detect any signs of bleeding or complications. Ambulating the client 4 hours after the procedure may increase the risk of bleeding, so it is not appropriate. Maintaining the client on NPO status for 24 hours is not necessary unless specifically ordered by the healthcare provider. Changing the dressing every 8 hours is not typically indicated unless there is a specific concern or order to do so.
3. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?
- A. Do not take the medication with milk to avoid reduced absorption.
- B. Brush and floss your teeth regularly to prevent gum disease.
- C. Avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of the medication.
- D. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of phenytoin. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with milk, as it may decrease its absorption. Choice B is unrelated to the medication and focuses on dental hygiene. Choice D is important but not directly related to phenytoin; it is more relevant to monitoring for adverse effects of the medication.
4. When planning home care for a 72-year-old client with osteomyelitis requiring a 6-week course of intravenous antibiotics, what is the most important action by the nurse?
- A. Investigating the client's insurance coverage for home IV antibiotic therapy
- B. Determining if there are adequate hand washing facilities in the home
- C. Assessing the client's ability to participate in self-care and/or the reliability of a caregiver
- D. Selecting the appropriate venous access device
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the client's ability to participate in self-care or evaluating the reliability of a caregiver is crucial in ensuring adherence to the treatment plan. This action helps determine if the client can manage the intravenous antibiotics at home independently or if assistance is needed. Investigating insurance coverage, ensuring hand washing facilities, and selecting the venous access device are important aspects of care but assessing the client's ability for self-care and caregiver reliability takes precedence to promote treatment success and safety.
5. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?
- A. Urinary incontinence
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Orthostatic hypotension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.
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