Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a heart murmur. The healthcare provider is preparing to auscultate the pulmonary valve. Over which of the following locations should the healthcare provider place the bell of the stethoscope?

• A. Second intercostal space at the left sternal border
• B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
• C. Fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border
• D. Fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the pulmonary valve is the second intercostal space at the left sternal border. This area is where the pulmonary valve can best be heard due to its anatomical position. Choice B, the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, is the location for auscultating the mitral valve. Choice C, the fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border, is the area for the tricuspid valve. Choice D, the fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line, is the site for listening to the mitral valve as well. Therefore, option A is the correct choice for auscultating the pulmonary valve.

2. While interviewing a client, the nurse records the assessment in the electronic health record. Which statement is most accurate regarding electronic documentation during an interview?

• A. The client's comfort level is increased when the nurse maintains eye contact while typing notes into the record
• B. The interview process is hindered by electronic documentation and may disrupt the flow of conversation
• C. The nurse has limited ability to observe nonverbal communication while entering the assessment electronically
• D. Completing the electronic record during an interview is optional and not a legal obligation of the examining nurse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most accurate statement is that the nurse has a limited ability to observe nonverbal communication while entering the assessment electronically. This is because the nurse's focus is on typing or inputting data, which may lead to missing important nonverbal cues from the client. Choices A and B are incorrect as they do not address the limitation of observing nonverbal cues. Choice A is incorrect because breaking eye contact to type notes may hinder the client's comfort level. Choice B is incorrect because it states that electronic documentation enhances the interview process, which may not always be the case. Choice D is incorrect as completing the electronic record during an interview is typically a standard practice but not a legal obligation.

3. An 80-year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of a possible cerebral vascular accident has had a blood pressure ranging from 180/110 to 160/100 over the past 2 hours. The nurse has also noted increased lethargy. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Incontinence
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Rapid pulse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Slurred speech is a classic sign of a worsening stroke, suggesting a potential blockage or hemorrhage affecting speech centers in the brain. Prompt reporting of this symptom to the healthcare provider is crucial for immediate evaluation and intervention. While incontinence (Choice B) is important to monitor, it is not considered an immediate priority over slurred speech in this context. Muscle weakness (Choice C) and rapid pulse (Choice D) are also relevant in stroke assessment, but slurred speech takes precedence due to its strong association with neurological deficits in the setting of a possible cerebral vascular accident.

4. The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will

• A. Improve the quality of care
• B. Decrease staff turnover
• C. Minimize the amount of overtime payouts
• D. Improve team morale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Improve team morale.' Self-scheduling allows staff more control over their work hours, which can lead to increased job satisfaction, autonomy, and a sense of ownership over their schedules. This, in turn, fosters a positive work environment, enhances collaboration among team members, and boosts morale. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while self-scheduling may indirectly contribute to improved quality of care, decreased staff turnover, and minimized overtime payouts, the primary benefit in this context is the positive impact on team morale.

5. A nurse is caring for two clients who report following the same religion. Which of the following information should the nurse consider when planning care for these clients?

• A. Members of the same religion may have varying feelings about their religion.
• B. A shared religion background does not guarantee identical beliefs.
• C. The same religious beliefs can influence individuals differently.
• D. Discussing differences and commonalities in beliefs may not always be relevant.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Religious beliefs can vary widely even among individuals of the same faith. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that the impact and interpretation of religious beliefs can differ from person to person. Choice A is incorrect as individuals within the same religion can have diverse feelings and interpretations. Choice B is incorrect because a shared religious background does not necessarily mean that individuals hold the same beliefs. Choice D is not the best course of action as discussing differences and commonalities in beliefs may not always be necessary or appropriate for providing care.

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